Exams — Answer Key & Missing-Exam Audit

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DOJ Examinations — Answer Key & Missing-Exam Audit

Every question in the live exam_questions bank, with the correct answer marked, plus an audit of which examinations are advertised but not yet built. Generated directly from the seeded CrestWood DOJ database (452 questions).

452

Questions in bank

382

Bar questions

DMV questions

Professional-exam questions

Examination	Where it is taken	Pass	Time	Fee	Retake wait	In bank	Per sitting
Bar Examination Licensure to practice law	Registered by a clerk at the City Services window (creates a code + fee invoice); the official sitting runs on the DOJ web portal at an in-city DOJ terminal (also reachable through the DOJ phone app / browser once a code is issued).	75%	60 min	$5,000	3 days	382	50
DMV Written Test Driver knowledge test	Taken at the DMV — upstairs in City Hall. Passing the written test unlocks the practical road test (see the DMV instructor; no additional fee).	80%	30 min	$250	1 day	70	20
7 Professional exams Business, Contractor, Event, Insurance, IT, Paralegal, Realtor	Meant to be registered at the City Services window (“Register for Examination”), separate from the DMV.	n/a	n/a	n/a	n/a	0	cannot start

How correct answers are stored — so you can trust this key.

Each row stores its options as a JSON array and a correct_idx that is 0-based: 0 = the first option (A), 1 = the second (B), 2 = C, 3 = D. This key lists options in their stored order and marks the option at correct_idx in green with a ✓. In a real sitting the engine (api/exams.php) shuffles the option order per candidate and grades against the stored index — so the letter a candidate sees will differ, but the correct answer text is always the one marked here.

Official only A question tagged Official only has practice_ok = 0: it is withheld from the free practice runner (js/study.js) and appears only on the paid official sitting. Bar has 47 such questions, DMV 0.

Bar Examination — Answer Key

An official sitting draws 50 questions by category quota (Scenario / Client Guidance 12, Penal Code 10, DOJ Procedures 8, Criminal Procedure 6, Evidence 5, Server Rules / RP Conduct 4, Civil Procedure 3, Legal Ethics 2); pass mark 75% (≥ 38 / 50), 60-minute limit, $5,000 fee, 3-day retake wait. The full bank of 382 questions is below, grouped by category. Tap a category to expand.

Orphaned category The government category has 5 questions, but the Bar quotas_json has no government key — so these never appear on an official Bar sitting (only in unfiltered practice). See Missing & Incomplete.

Penal Code 72 questions · 10 drawn per official sitting

1. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (1)01 Capital Murder (Capital Felony)? Official only #1165

A capital punishment eligible, no standard jail cap ✓ correct
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,500 fine
D up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine

2. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (1)02 Murder (Felony 1st Degree)? #1166

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $5,000 fine
B up to 120 month(s) jail and up to $100,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $1,500 fine
D up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine

3. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (1)03 Manslaughter (Felony 2nd Degree)? #1167

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
C up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $5,000 fine

4. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (1)04 Criminally Negligent Homicide (State Jail Felony)? #1168

A up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $25,000 fine
B up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $10,000 fine
C up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $5,000 fine
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine ✓ correct

5. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (1)05 Aggravated Assault (Felony 2nd Degree)? #1169

A up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
C up to 96 month(s) jail and up to $75,000 fine
D up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine

6. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (1)06 Assault (Class A Misdemeanor)? #1170

A up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $1,000 fine
B up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine
D up to 120 month(s) jail and up to $100,000 fine

7. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (1)07 Aggravated Kidnapping (Felony 1st Degree)? #1171

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
C up to 96 month(s) jail and up to $75,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine

8. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (1)08 Kidnapping (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1172

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
B up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
C up to 120 month(s) jail and up to $100,000 fine
D up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $25,000 fine ✓ correct

9. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (1)09 Deadly Conduct (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1173

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
C up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine

10. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (1)10 Terroristic Threat (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1174

A up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $10,000 fine
D up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine

11. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (2)01 Aggravated Robbery (Felony 1st Degree)? Official only #1175

A up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $250 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine
C up to 90 month(s) jail and up to $60,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine

12. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (2)02 Robbery (Felony 2nd Degree)? #1176

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
B up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $1,500 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
D up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine ✓ correct

13. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (2)03 Burglary of a Habitation (Felony 2nd Degree)? #1177

A up to 48 month(s) jail and up to $30,000 fine ✓ correct
B capital punishment eligible, no standard jail cap
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,500 fine

14. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (2)04 Burglary of a Vehicle (Class A Misdemeanor)? #1178

A up to 90 month(s) jail and up to $60,000 fine
B up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $10,000 fine
D up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $1,000 fine

15. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (2)05 Theft (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1179

A up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
B up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $1,500 fine
C up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,500 fine

16. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (2)06 Grand Theft Auto (State Jail Felony)? #1180

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
C up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine ✓ correct

17. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (2)07 Arson (Felony 2nd Degree)? #1181

A up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 96 month(s) jail and up to $75,000 fine
C up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
D up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,500 fine

18. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (2)08 Criminal Mischief (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1182

A up to 96 month(s) jail and up to $75,000 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,500 fine ✓ correct
C up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $25,000 fine
D up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine

19. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (2)09 Criminal Trespass (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1183

A up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
C up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $1,500 fine ✓ correct
D up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,500 fine

20. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (3)01 Manufacture or Delivery of a Controlled Substance (Felony 1st Degree)? #1184

A up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
C up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
D up to 90 month(s) jail and up to $75,000 fine ✓ correct

21. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (3)02 Possession of a Controlled Substance (Felony 3rd Degree)? Official only #1185

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $25,000 fine
C up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
D up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,500 fine

22. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (3)03 Possession of Marijuana (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1186

A up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $1,500 fine
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine

23. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (3)04 Possession of Drug Paraphernalia (Class C Misdemeanor)? #1187

A up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
C up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine ✓ correct
D up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine

24. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (4)01 Prohibited Weapon (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1188

A up to 48 month(s) jail and up to $30,000 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
C up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine
D up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $25,000 fine ✓ correct

25. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (4)02 Unlawful Possession of a Firearm (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1189

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine
C up to 48 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine

26. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (4)03 Unlawful Carrying of a Weapon (Class A Misdemeanor)? #1190

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
B up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $1,500 fine
D up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,500 fine

27. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (4)04 Deadly Weapon in a Penal Institution (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1191

A up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
B up to 96 month(s) jail and up to $75,000 fine
C up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine

28. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (5)01 Speeding (Infraction)? #1192

A up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,500 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
D up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $250 fine ✓ correct

29. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (5)02 Reckless Driving (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1193

A up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $1,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $25,000 fine
C up to 90 month(s) jail and up to $60,000 fine
D up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine

30. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (5)03 Evading in a Vehicle (State Jail Felony)? #1194

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 48 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,500 fine

31. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (5)04 Driving While Intoxicated (Class B Misdemeanor)? Official only #1195

A up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $10,000 fine
B up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $10,500 fine
C up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine

32. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (5)05 Street Racing (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1196

A up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine
B up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
D up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine ✓ correct

33. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (5)06 Driving While License Invalid (Class C Misdemeanor)? #1197

A up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine ✓ correct
B up to 90 month(s) jail and up to $60,000 fine
C up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $1,000 fine
D up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine

34. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (5)07 Failure to Stop and Render Aid (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1198

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 90 month(s) jail and up to $60,000 fine
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,500 fine

35. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (6)01 Riot (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1199

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,500 fine
C up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,500 fine

36. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (6)02 Disorderly Conduct (Class C Misdemeanor)? #1200

A up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $10,000 fine
B up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $1,000 fine
C up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
D up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine ✓ correct

37. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (6)03 Public Intoxication (Class C Misdemeanor)? #1201

A up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine ✓ correct
B up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $10,000 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,500 fine

38. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (6)04 Resisting Arrest (Class A Misdemeanor)? #1202

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
B up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine

39. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (6)05 Evading Arrest (Class A Misdemeanor)? #1203

A up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
C up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,500 fine

40. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (6)06 Failure to Identify (Class C Misdemeanor)? #1204

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,500 fine
C up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine
D up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine ✓ correct

41. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (6)07 Interference with Public Duties (Class B Misdemeanor)? Official only #1205

A up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
C up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,500 fine

42. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (6)08 Obstruction or Retaliation (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1206

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,500 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
D up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine

43. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (7)01 Money Laundering (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1207

A up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
B up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
C up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine

44. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (7)02 Bribery (Felony 2nd Degree)? #1208

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
C up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine
D up to 48 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine ✓ correct

45. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (7)03 Forgery (State Jail Felony)? #1209

A up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $10,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine
D up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $5,000 fine

46. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (7)04 Credit or Debit Card Abuse (State Jail Felony)? #1210

A up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
B up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $10,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
D up to 60 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine

47. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (7)05 Theft of Service (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1211

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $5,000 fine
B up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
C up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $250 fine

48. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (8)01 Escape from Custody (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1212

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
B up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,500 fine
C up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $25,000 fine
D up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine ✓ correct

49. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (8)02 Perjury (Class A Misdemeanor)? #1213

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $5,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
D up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine

50. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (8)03 Tampering with Physical Evidence (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1214

A up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
D up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $5,000 fine

51. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (8)04 Impersonating a Public Servant (Felony 3rd Degree)? Official only #1215

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine
B up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $25,000 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine

52. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (8)05 Bail Jumping or Failure to Appear (Class A Misdemeanor)? #1216

A up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
B up to 90 month(s) jail and up to $60,000 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
D up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine ✓ correct

53. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (8)06 Possession of Contraband in a Correctional Facility (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1217

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 48 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine
C up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $250 fine
D up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine

54. Which of the following is the only Capital Felony offense in the CrestWood Penal Code? #1218

A Murder
B Capital Murder ✓ correct
C Aggravated Kidnapping
D Aggravated Robbery

55. Which of these offenses is classified as a Felony 1st Degree? #1219

A Manslaughter
B Burglary of a Habitation
C Murder ✓ correct
D Robbery

56. Which of these offenses is classified as a State Jail Felony? #1220

A Theft
B Criminal Mischief
C Riot
D Grand Theft Auto ✓ correct

57. Which of these offenses is classified as a Class C Misdemeanor? #1221

A Disorderly Conduct ✓ correct
B Resisting Arrest
C Reckless Driving
D Riot

58. Which of these offenses carries the highest maximum fine among Class B Misdemeanors? #1222

A Theft ($2,000)
B Criminal Mischief ($2,500) ✓ correct
C Criminal Trespass ($1,500)
D Street Racing ($2,000)

59. Aggravated Kidnapping and which other offense share the classification Felony 1st Degree? #1223

A Kidnapping
B Burglary of a Habitation
C Manufacture or Delivery of a Controlled Substance ✓ correct
D Escape from Custody

60. Which of these offenses is classified as an Infraction rather than a Misdemeanor or Felony? #1224

A Driving While License Invalid
B Public Intoxication
C Failure to Identify
D Speeding ✓ correct

61. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (9)01 Indecent Exposure (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1557

A up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
C up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
D up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine

62. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (9)04 Promotion of Prostitution (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1558

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
D up to 48 month(s) jail and up to $45,000 fine

63. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (9)06 Public Lewdness (Class A Misdemeanor)? #1559

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine ✓ correct
B up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine

64. Which title of the CrestWood Penal Code was added to cover vice offenses such as Prostitution, Solicitation, and Public Lewdness? #1560

A Title 6 - Public Order and Obstruction
B Title 9 - Vice and Public Morals ✓ correct
C Title 8 - Offenses Against Government and Justice
D Title 1 - Offenses Against Persons

65. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (10)01 Cruelty to a Non-Livestock Animal (State Jail Felony)? #1561

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
B up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $10,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine

66. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (10)03 Hunting Without a Valid License (Class C Misdemeanor)? #1562

A up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $500 fine ✓ correct
B up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
C up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
D up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $250 fine

67. Which title of the CrestWood Penal Code covers animal cruelty and unlawful hunting offenses? #1563

A Title 3 - Drug Offenses
B Title 10 - Environmental and Wildlife Offenses ✓ correct
C Title 5 - Traffic Offenses
D Title 4 - Weapons Offenses

68. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (7)06 Identity Theft (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1564

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
B up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,000 fine
D up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine

69. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (7)07 Money Laundering (Aggravated, Over $150,000) (Felony 1st Degree)? #1565

A up to 36 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine
B up to 96 month(s) jail and up to $90,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine
D up to 48 month(s) jail and up to $50,000 fine

70. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (5)09 Speeding (40+ MPH Over Limit) (Class B Misdemeanor)? #1566

A up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $250 fine
B up to 0 month(s) jail and up to $750 fine
C up to 3 month(s) jail and up to $1,500 fine ✓ correct
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $2,500 fine

71. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (5)11 Driving While Intoxicated (Third or Subsequent Offense) (Felony 3rd Degree)? #1567

A up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $6,000 fine
B up to 18 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
C up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $20,000 fine ✓ correct
D up to 6 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine

72. Under the CrestWood Penal Code, what is the penalty range for (5)17 Failure to Stop and Render Aid (Serious Injury or Death) (Felony 2nd Degree)? #1568

A up to 24 month(s) jail and up to $15,000 fine
B up to 48 month(s) jail and up to $40,000 fine ✓ correct
C up to 12 month(s) jail and up to $4,000 fine
D up to 96 month(s) jail and up to $80,000 fine

Scenario / Client Guidance 85 questions · 12 drawn per official sitting

1. Marcus Webb is booked on a felony charge, has no attorney, and no firm has contacted them. What is the correct guidance under Section 2.3? Official only #1225

A Explain the three paths - self-representation, request a Public Defender, or retain private counsel - and let the citizen choose. ✓ correct
B Automatically assign a Public Defender without asking the citizen.
C Tell them to wait until a firm reaches out before doing anything.
D Advise them that only self-representation is available until trial.

2. Dana Ruiz is booked on a felony charge, has no attorney, and no firm has contacted them. What is the correct guidance under Section 2.3? #1226

A Automatically assign a Public Defender without asking the citizen.
B Explain the three paths - self-representation, request a Public Defender, or retain private counsel - and let the citizen choose. ✓ correct
C Tell them to wait until a firm reaches out before doing anything.
D Advise them that only self-representation is available until trial.

3. Petra Lindqvist is booked on a felony charge, has no attorney, and no firm has contacted them. What is the correct guidance under Section 2.3? #1227

A Automatically assign a Public Defender without asking the citizen.
B Tell them to wait until a firm reaches out before doing anything.
C Explain the three paths - self-representation, request a Public Defender, or retain private counsel - and let the citizen choose. ✓ correct
D Advise them that only self-representation is available until trial.

4. Owen Castellano is booked on a felony charge, has no attorney, and no firm has contacted them. What is the correct guidance under Section 2.3? #1228

A Automatically assign a Public Defender without asking the citizen.
B Tell them to wait until a firm reaches out before doing anything.
C Advise them that only self-representation is available until trial.
D Explain the three paths - self-representation, request a Public Defender, or retain private counsel - and let the citizen choose. ✓ correct

5. Sasha Novak is booked on a felony charge, has no attorney, and no firm has contacted them. What is the correct guidance under Section 2.3? #1229

A Explain the three paths - self-representation, request a Public Defender, or retain private counsel - and let the citizen choose. ✓ correct
B Automatically assign a Public Defender without asking the citizen.
C Tell them to wait until a firm reaches out before doing anything.
D Advise them that only self-representation is available until trial.

6. Elliot Vance is booked on a felony charge, has no attorney, and no firm has contacted them. What is the correct guidance under Section 2.3? Official only #1230

A Automatically assign a Public Defender without asking the citizen.
B Explain the three paths - self-representation, request a Public Defender, or retain private counsel - and let the citizen choose. ✓ correct
C Tell them to wait until a firm reaches out before doing anything.
D Advise them that only self-representation is available until trial.

7. Renata Solis is booked on a felony charge, has no attorney, and no firm has contacted them. What is the correct guidance under Section 2.3? #1231

A Automatically assign a Public Defender without asking the citizen.
B Tell them to wait until a firm reaches out before doing anything.
C Explain the three paths - self-representation, request a Public Defender, or retain private counsel - and let the citizen choose. ✓ correct
D Advise them that only self-representation is available until trial.

8. Tobias Krane is booked on a felony charge, has no attorney, and no firm has contacted them. What is the correct guidance under Section 2.3? #1232

A Automatically assign a Public Defender without asking the citizen.
B Tell them to wait until a firm reaches out before doing anything.
C Advise them that only self-representation is available until trial.
D Explain the three paths - self-representation, request a Public Defender, or retain private counsel - and let the citizen choose. ✓ correct

9. Dana Ruiz posted a private-retention request four days ago and no firm has accepted. What should Dana Ruiz be told? #1233

A The 3-day acceptance window has passed, so they may now proceed self-represented or request a Public Defender. ✓ correct
B They must keep waiting indefinitely for a firm to respond.
C The request automatically converts to a Public Defender assignment without their input.
D They forfeit the right to any counsel once the window lapses.

10. Petra Lindqvist posted a private-retention request four days ago and no firm has accepted. What should Petra Lindqvist be told? #1234

A They must keep waiting indefinitely for a firm to respond.
B The 3-day acceptance window has passed, so they may now proceed self-represented or request a Public Defender. ✓ correct
C The request automatically converts to a Public Defender assignment without their input.
D They forfeit the right to any counsel once the window lapses.

11. Owen Castellano posted a private-retention request four days ago and no firm has accepted. What should Owen Castellano be told? Official only #1235

A They must keep waiting indefinitely for a firm to respond.
B The request automatically converts to a Public Defender assignment without their input.
C The 3-day acceptance window has passed, so they may now proceed self-represented or request a Public Defender. ✓ correct
D They forfeit the right to any counsel once the window lapses.

12. Sasha Novak posted a private-retention request four days ago and no firm has accepted. What should Sasha Novak be told? #1236

A They must keep waiting indefinitely for a firm to respond.
B The request automatically converts to a Public Defender assignment without their input.
C They forfeit the right to any counsel once the window lapses.
D The 3-day acceptance window has passed, so they may now proceed self-represented or request a Public Defender. ✓ correct

13. Elliot Vance posted a private-retention request four days ago and no firm has accepted. What should Elliot Vance be told? #1237

A The 3-day acceptance window has passed, so they may now proceed self-represented or request a Public Defender. ✓ correct
B They must keep waiting indefinitely for a firm to respond.
C The request automatically converts to a Public Defender assignment without their input.
D They forfeit the right to any counsel once the window lapses.

14. Renata Solis posted a private-retention request four days ago and no firm has accepted. What should Renata Solis be told? #1238

A They must keep waiting indefinitely for a firm to respond.
B The 3-day acceptance window has passed, so they may now proceed self-represented or request a Public Defender. ✓ correct
C The request automatically converts to a Public Defender assignment without their input.
D They forfeit the right to any counsel once the window lapses.

15. Tobias Krane posted a private-retention request four days ago and no firm has accepted. What should Tobias Krane be told? #1239

A They must keep waiting indefinitely for a firm to respond.
B The request automatically converts to a Public Defender assignment without their input.
C The 3-day acceptance window has passed, so they may now proceed self-represented or request a Public Defender. ✓ correct
D They forfeit the right to any counsel once the window lapses.

16. The DA offers Petra Lindqvist a plea to a lesser charge. As Petra Lindqvist's counsel, what is the professionally correct next step? Official only #1240

A Accept the plea on Petra Lindqvist's behalf without discussing it, since it is the faster outcome.
B Refuse to relay the offer because you personally disagree with taking any plea.
C Tell Petra Lindqvist the plea is mandatory and they have no choice but to accept.
D Explain the terms, likely trial outcomes, and consequences fully, then let Petra Lindqvist decide whether to accept. ✓ correct

17. The DA offers Owen Castellano a plea to a lesser charge. As Owen Castellano's counsel, what is the professionally correct next step? #1241

A Explain the terms, likely trial outcomes, and consequences fully, then let Owen Castellano decide whether to accept. ✓ correct
B Accept the plea on Owen Castellano's behalf without discussing it, since it is the faster outcome.
C Refuse to relay the offer because you personally disagree with taking any plea.
D Tell Owen Castellano the plea is mandatory and they have no choice but to accept.

18. The DA offers Sasha Novak a plea to a lesser charge. As Sasha Novak's counsel, what is the professionally correct next step? #1242

A Accept the plea on Sasha Novak's behalf without discussing it, since it is the faster outcome.
B Explain the terms, likely trial outcomes, and consequences fully, then let Sasha Novak decide whether to accept. ✓ correct
C Refuse to relay the offer because you personally disagree with taking any plea.
D Tell Sasha Novak the plea is mandatory and they have no choice but to accept.

19. The DA offers Elliot Vance a plea to a lesser charge. As Elliot Vance's counsel, what is the professionally correct next step? #1243

A Accept the plea on Elliot Vance's behalf without discussing it, since it is the faster outcome.
B Refuse to relay the offer because you personally disagree with taking any plea.
C Explain the terms, likely trial outcomes, and consequences fully, then let Elliot Vance decide whether to accept. ✓ correct
D Tell Elliot Vance the plea is mandatory and they have no choice but to accept.

20. The DA offers Renata Solis a plea to a lesser charge. As Renata Solis's counsel, what is the professionally correct next step? #1244

A Accept the plea on Renata Solis's behalf without discussing it, since it is the faster outcome.
B Refuse to relay the offer because you personally disagree with taking any plea.
C Tell Renata Solis the plea is mandatory and they have no choice but to accept.
D Explain the terms, likely trial outcomes, and consequences fully, then let Renata Solis decide whether to accept. ✓ correct

21. The DA offers Tobias Krane a plea to a lesser charge. As Tobias Krane's counsel, what is the professionally correct next step? Official only #1245

A Explain the terms, likely trial outcomes, and consequences fully, then let Tobias Krane decide whether to accept. ✓ correct
B Accept the plea on Tobias Krane's behalf without discussing it, since it is the faster outcome.
C Refuse to relay the offer because you personally disagree with taking any plea.
D Tell Tobias Krane the plea is mandatory and they have no choice but to accept.

22. The DA offers Aiyana Marsh a plea to a lesser charge. As Aiyana Marsh's counsel, what is the professionally correct next step? #1246

A Accept the plea on Aiyana Marsh's behalf without discussing it, since it is the faster outcome.
B Explain the terms, likely trial outcomes, and consequences fully, then let Aiyana Marsh decide whether to accept. ✓ correct
C Refuse to relay the offer because you personally disagree with taking any plea.
D Tell Aiyana Marsh the plea is mandatory and they have no choice but to accept.

23. During a briefcase consultation, Owen Castellano admits a fact damaging to their own defense. Under Title VI Section 2, can counsel disclose it? #1247

A Yes, if counsel believes disclosure would help the case.
B Yes, but only to the presiding judge informally.
C No - the communication is privileged and may not be disclosed without the client's consent or a court order. ✓ correct
D Yes, as long as it is shared only with the DA's office.

24. During a briefcase consultation, Sasha Novak admits a fact damaging to their own defense. Under Title VI Section 2, can counsel disclose it? #1248

A Yes, if counsel believes disclosure would help the case.
B Yes, but only to the presiding judge informally.
C Yes, as long as it is shared only with the DA's office.
D No - the communication is privileged and may not be disclosed without the client's consent or a court order. ✓ correct

25. During a briefcase consultation, Elliot Vance admits a fact damaging to their own defense. Under Title VI Section 2, can counsel disclose it? #1249

A No - the communication is privileged and may not be disclosed without the client's consent or a court order. ✓ correct
B Yes, if counsel believes disclosure would help the case.
C Yes, but only to the presiding judge informally.
D Yes, as long as it is shared only with the DA's office.

26. During a briefcase consultation, Renata Solis admits a fact damaging to their own defense. Under Title VI Section 2, can counsel disclose it? Official only #1250

A Yes, if counsel believes disclosure would help the case.
B No - the communication is privileged and may not be disclosed without the client's consent or a court order. ✓ correct
C Yes, but only to the presiding judge informally.
D Yes, as long as it is shared only with the DA's office.

27. During a briefcase consultation, Tobias Krane admits a fact damaging to their own defense. Under Title VI Section 2, can counsel disclose it? #1251

A Yes, if counsel believes disclosure would help the case.
B Yes, but only to the presiding judge informally.
C No - the communication is privileged and may not be disclosed without the client's consent or a court order. ✓ correct
D Yes, as long as it is shared only with the DA's office.

28. During a briefcase consultation, Aiyana Marsh admits a fact damaging to their own defense. Under Title VI Section 2, can counsel disclose it? #1252

A Yes, if counsel believes disclosure would help the case.
B Yes, but only to the presiding judge informally.
C Yes, as long as it is shared only with the DA's office.
D No - the communication is privileged and may not be disclosed without the client's consent or a court order. ✓ correct

29. During a briefcase consultation, Bram Feldstein admits a fact damaging to their own defense. Under Title VI Section 2, can counsel disclose it? #1253

A No - the communication is privileged and may not be disclosed without the client's consent or a court order. ✓ correct
B Yes, if counsel believes disclosure would help the case.
C Yes, but only to the presiding judge informally.
D Yes, as long as it is shared only with the DA's office.

30. A firm is asked to represent both Marcus Webb and Elliot Vance, who are adverse parties in the same matter. What does Title VI Section 3 require? #1254

A The firm may represent both as long as one attorney handles each client.
B The firm must screen for the conflict and decline to represent both adverse parties in the same matter. ✓ correct
C The firm may proceed since disclosure to the court is optional.
D The firm may represent both if the clients verbally agree between themselves.

31. A firm is asked to represent both Dana Ruiz and Renata Solis, who are adverse parties in the same matter. What does Title VI Section 3 require? Official only #1255

A The firm may represent both as long as one attorney handles each client.
B The firm may proceed since disclosure to the court is optional.
C The firm must screen for the conflict and decline to represent both adverse parties in the same matter. ✓ correct
D The firm may represent both if the clients verbally agree between themselves.

32. A firm is asked to represent both Petra Lindqvist and Tobias Krane, who are adverse parties in the same matter. What does Title VI Section 3 require? #1256

A The firm may represent both as long as one attorney handles each client.
B The firm may proceed since disclosure to the court is optional.
C The firm may represent both if the clients verbally agree between themselves.
D The firm must screen for the conflict and decline to represent both adverse parties in the same matter. ✓ correct

33. A firm is asked to represent both Owen Castellano and Aiyana Marsh, who are adverse parties in the same matter. What does Title VI Section 3 require? #1257

A The firm must screen for the conflict and decline to represent both adverse parties in the same matter. ✓ correct
B The firm may represent both as long as one attorney handles each client.
C The firm may proceed since disclosure to the court is optional.
D The firm may represent both if the clients verbally agree between themselves.

34. A firm is asked to represent both Sasha Novak and Bram Feldstein, who are adverse parties in the same matter. What does Title VI Section 3 require? #1258

A The firm may represent both as long as one attorney handles each client.
B The firm must screen for the conflict and decline to represent both adverse parties in the same matter. ✓ correct
C The firm may proceed since disclosure to the court is optional.
D The firm may represent both if the clients verbally agree between themselves.

35. A firm is asked to represent both Elliot Vance and Corvin Ashby, who are adverse parties in the same matter. What does Title VI Section 3 require? #1259

A The firm may represent both as long as one attorney handles each client.
B The firm may proceed since disclosure to the court is optional.
C The firm must screen for the conflict and decline to represent both adverse parties in the same matter. ✓ correct
D The firm may represent both if the clients verbally agree between themselves.

36. A firm is asked to represent both Renata Solis and Delphine Reyes, who are adverse parties in the same matter. What does Title VI Section 3 require? Official only #1260

A The firm may represent both as long as one attorney handles each client.
B The firm may proceed since disclosure to the court is optional.
C The firm may represent both if the clients verbally agree between themselves.
D The firm must screen for the conflict and decline to represent both adverse parties in the same matter. ✓ correct

37. Counsel for Tobias Krane realizes they cannot appear at a scheduled hearing. Under Section 3.7, what must they do? #1261

A File notice before the hearing or answer to the presiding judge for the absence. ✓ correct
B Simply not appear; the court will reschedule automatically.
C Notify only the opposing party and skip notifying the court.
D Wait until after the hearing to explain the absence.

38. Counsel for Aiyana Marsh realizes they cannot appear at a scheduled hearing. Under Section 3.7, what must they do? #1262

A Simply not appear; the court will reschedule automatically.
B File notice before the hearing or answer to the presiding judge for the absence. ✓ correct
C Notify only the opposing party and skip notifying the court.
D Wait until after the hearing to explain the absence.

39. Counsel for Bram Feldstein realizes they cannot appear at a scheduled hearing. Under Section 3.7, what must they do? #1263

A Simply not appear; the court will reschedule automatically.
B Notify only the opposing party and skip notifying the court.
C File notice before the hearing or answer to the presiding judge for the absence. ✓ correct
D Wait until after the hearing to explain the absence.

40. Counsel for Corvin Ashby realizes they cannot appear at a scheduled hearing. Under Section 3.7, what must they do? #1264

A Simply not appear; the court will reschedule automatically.
B Notify only the opposing party and skip notifying the court.
C Wait until after the hearing to explain the absence.
D File notice before the hearing or answer to the presiding judge for the absence. ✓ correct

41. Counsel for Delphine Reyes realizes they cannot appear at a scheduled hearing. Under Section 3.7, what must they do? Official only #1265

A File notice before the hearing or answer to the presiding judge for the absence. ✓ correct
B Simply not appear; the court will reschedule automatically.
C Notify only the opposing party and skip notifying the court.
D Wait until after the hearing to explain the absence.

42. Bram Feldstein instructs their attorney to file a document containing information counsel knows to be false. What does Title VI Section 1 require of the attorney? #1266

A File it as instructed since the client has final say over their own case.
B Decline to file the false document - an officer of the court may not knowingly file a false document or misrepresent facts. ✓ correct
C File it but add a private note to the case file disclaiming responsibility.
D File it only if the client promises to correct it later.

43. Corvin Ashby instructs their attorney to file a document containing information counsel knows to be false. What does Title VI Section 1 require of the attorney? #1267

A File it as instructed since the client has final say over their own case.
B File it but add a private note to the case file disclaiming responsibility.
C Decline to file the false document - an officer of the court may not knowingly file a false document or misrepresent facts. ✓ correct
D File it only if the client promises to correct it later.

44. Delphine Reyes instructs their attorney to file a document containing information counsel knows to be false. What does Title VI Section 1 require of the attorney? #1268

A File it as instructed since the client has final say over their own case.
B File it but add a private note to the case file disclaiming responsibility.
C File it only if the client promises to correct it later.
D Decline to file the false document - an officer of the court may not knowingly file a false document or misrepresent facts. ✓ correct

45. Malik Osei instructs their attorney to file a document containing information counsel knows to be false. What does Title VI Section 1 require of the attorney? #1269

A Decline to file the false document - an officer of the court may not knowingly file a false document or misrepresent facts. ✓ correct
B File it as instructed since the client has final say over their own case.
C File it but add a private note to the case file disclaiming responsibility.
D File it only if the client promises to correct it later.

46. Jolene Prewitt instructs their attorney to file a document containing information counsel knows to be false. What does Title VI Section 1 require of the attorney? Official only #1270

A File it as instructed since the client has final say over their own case.
B Decline to file the false document - an officer of the court may not knowingly file a false document or misrepresent facts. ✓ correct
C File it but add a private note to the case file disclaiming responsibility.
D File it only if the client promises to correct it later.

47. Delphine Reyes requests a Public Defender. Who is responsible for assigning one from the queue? #1271

A The Chief Justice personally selects every Public Defender.
B The citizen selects their own Public Defender from a public list.
C The District Attorney's office, which supervises the Public Defender assignment queue. ✓ correct
D The Master Clerk assigns Public Defenders as part of firm registration.

48. Malik Osei requests a Public Defender. Who is responsible for assigning one from the queue? #1272

A The Chief Justice personally selects every Public Defender.
B The citizen selects their own Public Defender from a public list.
C The Master Clerk assigns Public Defenders as part of firm registration.
D The District Attorney's office, which supervises the Public Defender assignment queue. ✓ correct

49. Jolene Prewitt requests a Public Defender. Who is responsible for assigning one from the queue? #1273

A The District Attorney's office, which supervises the Public Defender assignment queue. ✓ correct
B The Chief Justice personally selects every Public Defender.
C The citizen selects their own Public Defender from a public list.
D The Master Clerk assigns Public Defenders as part of firm registration.

50. Hassan Farid requests a Public Defender. Who is responsible for assigning one from the queue? #1274

A The Chief Justice personally selects every Public Defender.
B The District Attorney's office, which supervises the Public Defender assignment queue. ✓ correct
C The citizen selects their own Public Defender from a public list.
D The Master Clerk assigns Public Defenders as part of firm registration.

51. Isolde Merrick requests a Public Defender. Who is responsible for assigning one from the queue? Official only #1275

A The Chief Justice personally selects every Public Defender.
B The citizen selects their own Public Defender from a public list.
C The District Attorney's office, which supervises the Public Defender assignment queue. ✓ correct
D The Master Clerk assigns Public Defenders as part of firm registration.

52. Jolene Prewitt files to contest their processing and wants the bail they paid refunded. What is the correct forum and basis under Section 3.2-3.3? #1276

A Negotiate the refund privately with the arresting officer instead of the judge.
B Skip the contest hearing and request the refund from the Master Clerk instead.
C Request the refund directly from the District Attorney outside of any hearing.
D File to contest before the assigned judge; if the case is dismissed or results in not guilty, the bail is refunded in full and time served is compensated. ✓ correct

53. Hassan Farid files to contest their processing and wants the bail they paid refunded. What is the correct forum and basis under Section 3.2-3.3? #1277

A File to contest before the assigned judge; if the case is dismissed or results in not guilty, the bail is refunded in full and time served is compensated. ✓ correct
B Negotiate the refund privately with the arresting officer instead of the judge.
C Skip the contest hearing and request the refund from the Master Clerk instead.
D Request the refund directly from the District Attorney outside of any hearing.

54. Isolde Merrick files to contest their processing and wants the bail they paid refunded. What is the correct forum and basis under Section 3.2-3.3? #1278

A Negotiate the refund privately with the arresting officer instead of the judge.
B File to contest before the assigned judge; if the case is dismissed or results in not guilty, the bail is refunded in full and time served is compensated. ✓ correct
C Skip the contest hearing and request the refund from the Master Clerk instead.
D Request the refund directly from the District Attorney outside of any hearing.

55. Gideon Thorne files to contest their processing and wants the bail they paid refunded. What is the correct forum and basis under Section 3.2-3.3? #1279

A Negotiate the refund privately with the arresting officer instead of the judge.
B Skip the contest hearing and request the refund from the Master Clerk instead.
C File to contest before the assigned judge; if the case is dismissed or results in not guilty, the bail is refunded in full and time served is compensated. ✓ correct
D Request the refund directly from the District Attorney outside of any hearing.

56. Amara Ndiaye files to contest their processing and wants the bail they paid refunded. What is the correct forum and basis under Section 3.2-3.3? Official only #1280

A Negotiate the refund privately with the arresting officer instead of the judge.
B Skip the contest hearing and request the refund from the Master Clerk instead.
C Request the refund directly from the District Attorney outside of any hearing.
D File to contest before the assigned judge; if the case is dismissed or results in not guilty, the bail is refunded in full and time served is compensated. ✓ correct

57. Fenwick Tully files to contest their processing and wants the bail they paid refunded. What is the correct forum and basis under Section 3.2-3.3? #1281

A File to contest before the assigned judge; if the case is dismissed or results in not guilty, the bail is refunded in full and time served is compensated. ✓ correct
B Negotiate the refund privately with the arresting officer instead of the judge.
C Skip the contest hearing and request the refund from the Master Clerk instead.
D Request the refund directly from the District Attorney outside of any hearing.

58. The DA offers Isolde Merrick's counsel a deal contingent on Isolde Merrick providing information counsel knows is exaggerated. What should counsel do? #1282

A Present it anyway since it benefits the client.
B Refuse to present exaggerated information as fact; candor to the court and DA is required. ✓ correct
C Present it only if the DA does not ask follow-up questions.
D Let the client present it directly so counsel is not implicated.

59. The DA offers Gideon Thorne's counsel a deal contingent on Gideon Thorne providing information counsel knows is exaggerated. What should counsel do? #1283

A Present it anyway since it benefits the client.
B Present it only if the DA does not ask follow-up questions.
C Refuse to present exaggerated information as fact; candor to the court and DA is required. ✓ correct
D Let the client present it directly so counsel is not implicated.

60. The DA offers Amara Ndiaye's counsel a deal contingent on Amara Ndiaye providing information counsel knows is exaggerated. What should counsel do? #1284

A Present it anyway since it benefits the client.
B Present it only if the DA does not ask follow-up questions.
C Let the client present it directly so counsel is not implicated.
D Refuse to present exaggerated information as fact; candor to the court and DA is required. ✓ correct

61. The DA offers Fenwick Tully's counsel a deal contingent on Fenwick Tully providing information counsel knows is exaggerated. What should counsel do? Official only #1285

A Refuse to present exaggerated information as fact; candor to the court and DA is required. ✓ correct
B Present it anyway since it benefits the client.
C Present it only if the DA does not ask follow-up questions.
D Let the client present it directly so counsel is not implicated.

62. The DA offers Lior Ben-Ami's counsel a deal contingent on Lior Ben-Ami providing information counsel knows is exaggerated. What should counsel do? #1286

A Present it anyway since it benefits the client.
B Refuse to present exaggerated information as fact; candor to the court and DA is required. ✓ correct
C Present it only if the DA does not ask follow-up questions.
D Let the client present it directly so counsel is not implicated.

63. The DA offers Marcus Webb's counsel a deal contingent on Marcus Webb providing information counsel knows is exaggerated. What should counsel do? #1287

A Present it anyway since it benefits the client.
B Present it only if the DA does not ask follow-up questions.
C Refuse to present exaggerated information as fact; candor to the court and DA is required. ✓ correct
D Let the client present it directly so counsel is not implicated.

64. Amara Ndiaye asks their attorney how to get an old conviction expunged. What is the accurate advice under Section 4.5? #1288

A Expungement happens automatically after a fixed number of years.
B The attorney can expunge the record directly by editing the case file.
C Expungement can be completed remotely by any clerk without a hearing.
D Expungement requires a court order after a hearing; a Clerk then physically destroys the document at the Permanent Records Library. ✓ correct

65. Fenwick Tully asks their attorney how to get an old conviction expunged. What is the accurate advice under Section 4.5? #1289

A Expungement requires a court order after a hearing; a Clerk then physically destroys the document at the Permanent Records Library. ✓ correct
B Expungement happens automatically after a fixed number of years.
C The attorney can expunge the record directly by editing the case file.
D Expungement can be completed remotely by any clerk without a hearing.

66. Lior Ben-Ami asks their attorney how to get an old conviction expunged. What is the accurate advice under Section 4.5? Official only #1290

A Expungement happens automatically after a fixed number of years.
B Expungement requires a court order after a hearing; a Clerk then physically destroys the document at the Permanent Records Library. ✓ correct
C The attorney can expunge the record directly by editing the case file.
D Expungement can be completed remotely by any clerk without a hearing.

67. Marcus Webb asks their attorney how to get an old conviction expunged. What is the accurate advice under Section 4.5? #1291

A Expungement happens automatically after a fixed number of years.
B The attorney can expunge the record directly by editing the case file.
C Expungement requires a court order after a hearing; a Clerk then physically destroys the document at the Permanent Records Library. ✓ correct
D Expungement can be completed remotely by any clerk without a hearing.

68. Dana Ruiz asks their attorney how to get an old conviction expunged. What is the accurate advice under Section 4.5? #1292

A Expungement happens automatically after a fixed number of years.
B The attorney can expunge the record directly by editing the case file.
C Expungement can be completed remotely by any clerk without a hearing.
D Expungement requires a court order after a hearing; a Clerk then physically destroys the document at the Permanent Records Library. ✓ correct

69. Petra Lindqvist asks their attorney how to get an old conviction expunged. What is the accurate advice under Section 4.5? #1293

A Expungement requires a court order after a hearing; a Clerk then physically destroys the document at the Permanent Records Library. ✓ correct
B Expungement happens automatically after a fixed number of years.
C The attorney can expunge the record directly by editing the case file.
D Expungement can be completed remotely by any clerk without a hearing.

70. An Associate at Petra Lindqvist's firm wants to update the firm's public banner and release a paralegal. Per Section 1.4, who must approve this? #1294

A Any firm member may make these changes unilaterally.
B Only Owners and Partners may alter the firm's public presence, hire/release staff, or accept clients on the firm's behalf - an Associate cannot do so alone. ✓ correct
C Only the Master Clerk can authorize firm-level changes like this.
D The changes require Chief Justice approval regardless of firm role.

71. An Associate at Owen Castellano's firm wants to change the firm's public biography and hire a new associate. Per Section 1.4, who must approve this? Official only #1295

A Any firm member may make these changes unilaterally.
B Only the Master Clerk can authorize firm-level changes like this.
C Only Owners and Partners may alter the firm's public presence, hire/release staff, or accept clients on the firm's behalf - an Associate cannot do so alone. ✓ correct
D The changes require Chief Justice approval regardless of firm role.

72. An Associate at Sasha Novak's firm wants to accept a prospective client on the firm's behalf and update its contact info. Per Section 1.4, who must approve this? #1296

A Any firm member may make these changes unilaterally.
B Only the Master Clerk can authorize firm-level changes like this.
C The changes require Chief Justice approval regardless of firm role.
D Only Owners and Partners may alter the firm's public presence, hire/release staff, or accept clients on the firm's behalf - an Associate cannot do so alone. ✓ correct

73. An Associate at Elliot Vance's firm wants to rebrand the firm's public photo and dismiss an associate. Per Section 1.4, who must approve this? #1297

A Only Owners and Partners may alter the firm's public presence, hire/release staff, or accept clients on the firm's behalf - an Associate cannot do so alone. ✓ correct
B Any firm member may make these changes unilaterally.
C Only the Master Clerk can authorize firm-level changes like this.
D The changes require Chief Justice approval regardless of firm role.

74. An Associate at Renata Solis's firm wants to hire a new paralegal and revise the firm's public contact details. Per Section 1.4, who must approve this? #1298

A Any firm member may make these changes unilaterally.
B Only Owners and Partners may alter the firm's public presence, hire/release staff, or accept clients on the firm's behalf - an Associate cannot do so alone. ✓ correct
C Only the Master Clerk can authorize firm-level changes like this.
D The changes require Chief Justice approval regardless of firm role.

75. An Associate at Tobias Krane's firm wants to accept a walk-in client for the firm and edit the firm banner. Per Section 1.4, who must approve this? #1299

A Any firm member may make these changes unilaterally.
B Only the Master Clerk can authorize firm-level changes like this.
C Only Owners and Partners may alter the firm's public presence, hire/release staff, or accept clients on the firm's behalf - an Associate cannot do so alone. ✓ correct
D The changes require Chief Justice approval regardless of firm role.

76. Jolene Prewitt has no attorney and wants to file her own contest paperwork without hiring counsel. Is this permitted under current policy? #1569

A No - only a licensed attorney may ever file paperwork on a citizen behalf.
B Yes - citizens may self-file, though a Clerk still reviews and accepts the filing before it takes effect. ✓ correct
C Only if a Judge personally pre-approves the self-filing in advance.
D No - self-filing was eliminated when the professional exam system was introduced.

77. Hassan Farid asks whether he can look up another citizen active warrants on the public registry search. What is the correct answer? #1570

A Yes - warrants are part of the fully public case registry like marriage and property filings.
B No - licenses, citations, and warrants are restricted to DOJ personnel; only marriage, property, and professional registries remain public. ✓ correct
C Yes, but only if Hassan is the arresting officer.
D No - no registry of any kind is ever visible to the public.

78. Isolde Merrick wants a certified copy of her documents but no clerk was on duty when they were filed. Where does she go to check on it? Data bug: malformed options #1571

A She must wait for a clerk to personally deliver it to her home.
B She checks "Check My Documents & Invoices" at a City Services window; it appears once a clerk has processed it. ✓ correct
C She may never retrieve it once the filing clerk is off duty.
D She must re-file the entire matter from scratch.

79. Gideon Thorne wants to know which positions require a passed Bar Exam on record. Which of the following is correctly on that required list? #1572

A Head Realtor (job grade), in addition to normal realtor certification ✓ correct
B Police Chief (job grade)
C Sheriff, with no other certification required
D EMS Chief, exempt from any exam

80. Amara Ndiaye asks whether the Police Chief position requires the Bar Exam. What is the accurate answer? #1573

A Yes, the Bar Exam is mandatory for Chief of Police just like for Master Clerk.
B No - Chief of Police is a policy-only position and does not require the Bar Exam. ✓ correct
C Yes, but only if the Chief also serves as a judge.
D No position outside the DOJ ever requires the Bar Exam.

81. Fenwick Tully wants to register for one of the seven newly added professional exams. Where does he go? #1574

A He registers at City Services, separate from the DMV which handles only driving tests. ✓ correct
B He registers exclusively through the Citizen Legal Portal with no in-person step.
C He must file a court petition before registering.
D He registers at the DMV alongside his driver license test.

82. Lior Ben-Ami just passed his first-ever professional license exam and wants the license printed. What does the first-license fee rule say? #1575

A The first license of each category is free; only later copies of that same license carry a fee. ✓ correct
B Every license, first or copy, costs the same posted fee with no exceptions.
C First licenses cost double to discourage frivolous applications.
D Licenses are always free regardless of how many copies are requested.

83. Marcus Webb has three outstanding invoices - a fine, a license fee, and a property bill. Which of the following are valid ways for him to pay them? #1576

A Only by mailing a check to the Supreme Court.
B At a City Services window, through the DOJ phone app, or on the DOJ website at an in-city terminal. ✓ correct
C Only in person at a City Services window; no other channel is accepted.
D Only through the DOJ phone app; the website and window do not accept payment.

84. Dana Ruiz is locked out of a DOJ terminal and needs help getting back in. What is the correct procedure? #1577

A Share a friend own login credentials to get back in quickly.
B Open an IT ticket so DOJ IT Staff can investigate and clear the terminal lockout. ✓ correct
C Simply wait 24 hours; lockouts always clear themselves with no report needed.
D Physically unplug and restart the terminal to force a reset.

85. Sasha Novak, self-represented, wants to know whether a self-represented citizen filing is treated any differently from one filed by an attorney once it reaches the queue. What is accurate? #1578

A Self-represented filings are automatically rejected without review.
B A self-represented filing still must be reviewed and accepted by a Clerk, Master Clerk, or Judge before it is effective, same as any other filing. ✓ correct
C Self-represented filings skip Clerk review entirely and take effect immediately.
D Self-represented citizens may not file anything without a licensed attorney co-signing.

DOJ Procedures 60 questions · 8 drawn per official sitting

1. Where may a filing on behalf of another person (a client filing) be formally submitted? Official only #1300

A Only from a DOJ terminal inside the city. ✓ correct
B From any web browser, in or out of the city.
C By mail to the Supreme Court.
D From a personal phone using the Citizen Legal Portal.

2. A citizen without counsel wants to formally submit a form themselves. Where must this happen? #1301

A From any DOJ terminal in the city.
B In person at a City Services window. ✓ correct
C Through the Citizen Legal Portal alone.
D By requesting a clerk visit their home.

3. What can the Citizen Legal Portal do for a self-represented citizen's paperwork? #1302

A Fully submit and finalize filings without a window visit.
B Automatically notify the judge of the filing.
C Prepare drafts only; formal submission still requires a City Services window. ✓ correct
D Print a certified copy immediately.

4. When does a filing become effective? #1303

A The moment it is submitted at any terminal.
B As soon as the citizen pays the filing fee.
C Once the Citizen Legal Portal shows a draft.
D Only once it is verified and accepted by a Clerk, Master Clerk, or the presiding Judge. ✓ correct

5. What happens to a rejected filing submission? #1304

A It is returned to the filer with the reason for rejection. ✓ correct
B It is silently deleted from the queue.
C It is automatically resubmitted after 24 hours.
D It is escalated straight to the Chief Justice.

6. What prefix does a registry number for a criminal case use? #1305

A MC-
B CW- ✓ correct
C PD-
D PR-

7. What prefix does a registry number for a marriage filing use? #1306

A CW-
B PD-
C MC- ✓ correct
D PR-

8. What prefix does a registry number for a property filing use? #1307

A CW-
B MC-
C PR-
D PD- ✓ correct

9. What prefix does a registry number for a professional registry filing use? Official only #1308

A PR- ✓ correct
B CW-
C MC-
D PD-

10. What information does the public record show for a filed case? #1309

A Full financial details of both parties.
B Registry numbers, party names, charges, verdicts, statuses, and filing dates. ✓ correct
C Attorney work product and briefcase notes.
D Personal contact details of all parties.

11. Which of the following is NEVER part of the public record? #1310

A The case's registry number.
B The verdict once approved.
C Attorney-client privileged material and evidence. ✓ correct
D The filing date.

12. A filed copy of a signed document is retained by the DOJ. What is the retention sequence? #1311

A Document Library for 60 days, then Storage for 90 days, then purge.
B Permanent Records Library indefinitely for every document.
C Storage for 90 days, then immediate destruction.
D Document Storage for 60 days, then Document Library for 90 days, then purge. ✓ correct

13. Who owns the signed original of a legal document? #1312

A The signatories themselves. ✓ correct
B The DOJ system permanently.
C The Clerk who processed the filing.
D The Chief Justice's office.

14. What happens to the registry record itself when the retained copy is purged? #1313

A It is purged along with the copy.
B The registry record is permanent and is not deleted. ✓ correct
C It moves to a private archive only clerks can see.
D It becomes editable by the filing party.

15. Which documents are stored in the Permanent Records Library and never age out? #1314

A Every filing submission regardless of type.
B Only marriage certificates.
C Verdicts, criminal judgments, expungement orders, and pardons. ✓ correct
D Draft filings prepared in the Citizen Legal Portal.

16. How can a party obtain a certified reprint of a retained document? #1315

A Free of charge from any clerk on request.
B Only via a court order.
C By emailing the Chief Justice directly.
D From a DOJ printer for the posted fee. ✓ correct

17. Who may seal a case or document? Official only #1316

A A Judge, the Chief Justice, or the Master Clerk. ✓ correct
B Any Clerk on their own authority.
C The arresting officer.
D Any registered attorney.

18. Once sealed, who can still view the material? #1317

A The general public with a records request.
B The judiciary, the Master Clerk, and system administration. ✓ correct
C Any Public Defender in the city.
D Any citizen who files a motion.

19. What is required for federal access to sealed material? #1318

A A Master Clerk's approval alone.
B A simple written request to the Clerk's office.
C A judge's co-signature. ✓ correct
D No additional authorization is needed.

20. What is required to unseal a case? #1319

A Any Clerk can unseal on request.
B The original filer can unseal it themselves.
C Unsealing happens automatically after 90 days.
D An order from a Judge of equal or higher level than the sealing authority. ✓ correct

21. Who grants expungement? #1320

A Only the court, by order after a hearing. ✓ correct
B Any Master Clerk on a citizen's request.
C The DA's office by administrative approval.
D System administration without a hearing.

22. After an expungement order, what must a Clerk physically do? #1321

A Delete the electronic record only; no physical action is needed.
B Attend the Permanent Records Library at the Supreme Court, locate the document by case number, and destroy it by shredder. ✓ correct
C Mail the document to the citizen.
D Transfer the document to the citizen's personal file.

23. Is remote expungement permitted? #1322

A Yes, for misdemeanors only.
B Yes, if approved by the Master Clerk.
C No, remote expungement is prohibited. ✓ correct
D Yes, but only for civil matters.

24. What is created when a document is expunged, for error-correction purposes only? #1323

A A public expungement log.
B A duplicate copy given to the citizen.
C Nothing is retained after expungement.
D A sealed administrative archive of expunged matter. ✓ correct

25. Who may restore an expunged record from the administrative archive? Official only #1324

A Only system administration. ✓ correct
B Any Master Clerk.
C The original filing Clerk.
D The Chief Justice or any Judge.

26. Besides the Basic Identification Card, what does every license or permit require? #1325

A Only a verbal request at a terminal.
B A completed form submitted under Title III and verification by a Clerk. ✓ correct
C Approval from the arresting agency.
D A court hearing in every case.

27. Where does a citizen obtain a Basic Identification Card? #1326

A Only from the DMV after a written test.
B From a DOJ terminal with a completed background check.
C At any City Services window for the posted fee, with no form or review. ✓ correct
D By mail after a 3-day waiting period.

28. Under Section 5.3, what does the DMV administer for a driver's license, and is a written test required? #1327

A Only a practical road test; there is no written portion.
B A written knowledge test AND a practical road test - both must be passed. ✓ correct
C Only a written knowledge test; no road test is required.
D Neither; licenses issue on request with no testing.

29. After passing the DMV driving test, what must the applicant do to get a license printed? #1328

A Report to City Hall, where a Clerk verifies the test record and issues/prints the license. ✓ correct
B Nothing further; the DMV prints it on the spot.
C Wait 3 days for automatic mailing.
D File a civil suit to compel issuance.

30. What is required before a driver's license may be printed? #1329

A Only the posted fee, regardless of test status.
B A verified test pass on record in the DOJ license registry. ✓ correct
C A background check, not a driving test.
D Approval from a Judge.

31. What is the first step in applying for a Weapons License? #1330

A Pass a written test at the DMV.
B Wait 2 days, then submit the form.
C Submit the application form, followed by a law-enforcement background check. ✓ correct
D Obtain a hunting license first.

32. How long is the waiting period after weapons license clearance? #1331

A 1 day.
B 7 days.
C No waiting period once cleared.
D 3 days. ✓ correct

33. What voids a Weapons License application during its waiting period? Official only #1332

A New charges, active warrants, or arrests during the waiting period. ✓ correct
B Changing address during the waiting period.
C Requesting a status update from a Clerk.
D Applying for a fishing license at the same time.

34. What is a prerequisite for a Hunting License? #1333

A A Basic Identification Card only.
B An active Weapons License. ✓ correct
C A driver's license.
D A business license.

35. What is the waiting period for a Hunting License, beyond the weapons prerequisite? #1334

A 3 days.
B 5 days.
C 2 days. ✓ correct
D No waiting period.

36. What does a Hunting License authorize? #1335

A Any weapon type, regardless of what is listed.
B Only firearms manufactured in-city.
C Fishing as well as hunting, automatically.
D Only the weapon types listed on the license. ✓ correct

37. What does a Fishing License require? #1336

A Only the form and fee. ✓ correct
B A background check and 2-day wait.
C An active weapons license.
D A DMV practical test.

38. What is required before issuance of a business license or construction permit? #1337

A Only the posted fee.
B The form and a law-enforcement background check. ✓ correct
C A court hearing.
D Nothing beyond a verbal request.

39. Who may suspend or revoke a license or permit? #1338

A Any Clerk without documentation.
B Only the District Attorney.
C A court order, or the Master Clerk upon a documented violation of its terms. ✓ correct
D Only the original issuing officer.

40. What must happen before fees for a license are paid, versus issuance? #1339

A Issuance happens first, billing follows later.
B Fees are waived if the applicant is a first-time filer.
C Fees are optional for city residents.
D Fees are billed by invoice and must be paid before issuance. ✓ correct

41. Where are licenses and permits printed relative to court documents? Official only #1340

A As separate credentials from court documents, issued by Clerks from the Issuance Queue. ✓ correct
B On the same form as any pending court filing.
C Only by the Chief Justice's office.
D At the DMV exclusively.

42. What appears on the face of an issued credential (license/permit)? #1341

A The applicant's full case history.
B Its restrictions. ✓ correct
C Attorney work product related to the applicant.
D Sealed case information, if any.

43. Which court hears civil suits above $25,000? #1342

A Municipal Court.
B The Supreme Court of CrestWood.
C District Court. ✓ correct
D Either court, at the plaintiff's choice.

44. Which court hears civil suits at or below $25,000? #1343

A District Court.
B The Supreme Court of CrestWood.
C Federal court.
D Municipal Court. ✓ correct

45. Which court is the physical home of the Permanent Records Library? #1344

A The Supreme Court of CrestWood. ✓ correct
B District Court.
C Municipal Court.
D City Hall.

46. What must a law firm do before practicing under a firm name? #1345

A Nothing; any group may use a firm name informally.
B Register with the Master Clerk. ✓ correct
C Register with the District Attorney.
D Post a public retention notice.

47. How does a solo practitioner register? #1346

A They cannot register; only multi-member groups may register.
B As a Public Defender by default.
C As a one-member firm. ✓ correct
D Through the Citizen Legal Portal only.

48. What happens to client case records when a firm dissolves? #1347

A They are deleted along with the firm.
B They transfer automatically to the Master Clerk's personal files.
C They become sealed by default.
D They remain on the record with the firm's name preserved as filed; dissolution never destroys them. ✓ correct

49. What is required before a hearing outcome takes effect on the calendar per Section 3.7? #1348

A Scheduling automatically notifies counsel of record and all parties through the DOJ message system. ✓ correct
B Nothing; parties must check the calendar manually with no notice.
C Only the presiding judge is notified.
D Only the filing party is notified.

50. What officer, per Section 1.3, manages clerks, user accounts, firm registration, and sealing? #1349

A Court Reporter.
B Master Clerk. ✓ correct
C Bailiff.
D U.S. Marshal.

51. How many professional examinations, beyond the Bar and DMV exams, are currently offered in CrestWood? #1579

A Three
B Five
C Seven ✓ correct
D Ten

52. Where is the DMV located relative to City Hall, and is it the same registration desk as the new professional exams? #1580

A The DMV is upstairs in City Hall, separate from professional-exam registration which happens at City Services. ✓ correct
B The DMV and professional exams share one registration window at the Supreme Court.
C The DMV is at the Supreme Court, and professional exams are administered at the DMV.
D There is no DMV; all driving tests are folded into the professional exam system.

53. What is the rule for the fee on a citizen first license of a given category versus a later copy of that same license? #1581

A Both the first license and any later copy cost the same fee.
B The first license of a category is free; a later copy of that same license costs a fee. ✓ correct
C The first license costs a fee; all later copies are free.
D Licenses are never reissued once lost.

54. A citizen wants to pay an outstanding invoice. Which of the following is NOT one of the three accepted payment channels? #1582

A A City Services window.
B The DOJ phone app.
C The DOJ website at an in-city terminal.
D Mailing cash to the Chief Justice office. ✓ correct

55. Are the licenses, citations, and warrants registries publicly searchable in the same way as the marriage, property, and professional registries? #1583

A Yes, all six registries are fully public.
B No - licenses, citations, and warrants are restricted to DOJ personnel; marriage, property, and professional registries remain public. ✓ correct
C No registry of any kind is public.
D Only the warrants registry is public; the others are restricted.

56. If a citizen terminal lockout ticket is filed with DOJ IT, what does the IT ticket process accomplish? #1584

A It automatically overturns any pending case against the citizen.
B It routes the access problem to DOJ IT Staff for investigation and resolution, separate from any legal filing. ✓ correct
C It replaces the need for a Clerk to review filings.
D It immediately suspends the citizen DOJ account.

57. When no clerk is on duty to accept a filed document, what happens to the printed original and filed copy? #1585

A They are never produced until the citizen re-files.
B They still get printed once a clerk later processes the paperwork; the citizen picks them up at a City Services window. ✓ correct
C They are destroyed and must be entirely refiled.
D They are mailed automatically with no pickup required.

58. What best describes the relationship between self-representation and Clerk review under current policy? #1586

A Self-representation eliminates the need for Clerk review entirely.
B Self-representation is not permitted under any circumstance.
C A citizen may self-file, but the filing still is not effective until a Clerk, Master Clerk, or Judge accepts it - the same standard applied to attorney-filed paperwork. ✓ correct
D Self-representation requires a Judge co-sign before the Clerk may even see the filing.

59. A judge files a recusal against a specific scheduled court session they were named to preside over. What happens to that session immediately? #1614

A Nothing changes until the Chief Justice reviews it.
B The session is cancelled outright.
C The session's judge assignment is cleared and it returns to unassigned, pending reassignment. ✓ correct
D The defendant is notified the case is dismissed.

60. After a judge recuses from a case generally (not tied to one scheduled session), whose approval is typically needed before the case's presiding judge is cleared? #1615

A No approval is needed; it happens automatically.
B The Chief Justice or an authorized reviewer. ✓ correct
C The defendant's attorney.
D The arresting officer.

Criminal Procedure 50 questions · 6 drawn per official sitting

1. Under Track One (street processing), what happens at the point of arrest? Official only #1350

A The arresting agency submits a criminal report to the District Attorney for review.
B Charges, jail time, and fine are tallied from the Penal Code and carried out immediately - no prosecutor or judge is required. ✓ correct
C The Clerk opens a case file only after a judge signs off.
D The defendant must first enter a plea at arraignment.

2. Under Track One, does a case require District Attorney charging review before it is processed? #1351

A Yes, the DA must approve, amend, or decline the charges first.
B No - charges, jail time, and fine are determined at the point of arrest under the Penal Code without DA or judge review. ✓ correct
C Only the Master Clerk may approve the charges.
D Only a judge may set the charges, at a bail hearing.

3. What happens automatically the moment law enforcement makes an arrest under Track One? #1352

A The defendant is immediately sentenced by a judge.
B The case is automatically sealed pending trial.
C A case is opened on the record automatically, listing the charges, amount paid or served, and the time. ✓ correct
D The case skips straight to a federal investigation.

4. Under Track Two, when may a processed citizen file to contest their case? #1353

A Only during a fixed arraignment window immediately after booking.
B At any time after being processed, themselves or through counsel under Section 2.3. ✓ correct
C Only within 30 days of sentencing.
D Only if the District Attorney invites a contest.

5. What does filing to contest do under Track Two? #1354

A It finalizes sentencing and closes the case.
B It selects a jury automatically.
C It opens a court case and schedules a hearing. ✓ correct
D It opens the appeal window.

6. Is a citizen held in custody while awaiting their Track Two contest hearing? #1355

A Yes, they are held in a cell pending the hearing.
B No - because they were already processed under Track One, they are not held; the contest is a remedy, not a second punishment. ✓ correct
C Only the District Attorney can decide whether to hold them.
D Yes, unless a jury is empaneled.

7. If a citizen personally requests a delay to secure a private attorney under the three-day window, what happens to the speedy-trial clock? #1356

A It keeps running and counts against the city.
B It resets to zero and restarts the process.
C The delay is the citizen's own choice and pauses the clock; it is never held against the city. ✓ correct
D It transfers the case to federal court.

8. What is the default trial format for a contested case under Section 3.4? #1357

A A jury trial in all cases.
B No trial; sentencing follows processing directly.
C A public referendum on guilt.
D A bench trial. ✓ correct

9. When is a jury trial available? Official only #1358

A On request, for felonies where practicable. ✓ correct
B Never, since all trials are bench trials.
C Only for infractions.
D Only if the DA requests one.

10. Who enters the verdict and sentence on the record? #1359

A The District Attorney.
B The presiding judge. ✓ correct
C The Master Clerk.
D The arresting agency.

11. What sentencing framework does CrestWood follow? #1360

A A flat fine schedule with no jail time ever.
B Federal sentencing guidelines exclusively.
C Texas Penal Code classifications, including capital punishment for capital felonies. ✓ correct
D No formal classification system.

12. How many days does a party have to appeal a verdict? #1361

A 3 days.
B 14 days.
C 30 days.
D 7 days. ✓ correct

13. To which court level does an appeal go? #1362

A The next court level up. ✓ correct
B The same court that issued the verdict.
C Directly to system administration.
D No appeal is possible under any circumstance.

14. Who leads all prosecution in CrestWood? #1363

A The Chief Justice.
B The District Attorney. ✓ correct
C The Master Clerk.
D The Bailiff.

15. Who supervises the Public Defender assignment queue? #1364

A The Master Clerk.
B The Chief Justice.
C The District Attorney's office. ✓ correct
D The presiding judge of each case.

16. Who presides over hearings and trials at a given court level? #1365

A The District Attorney.
B The Bailiff.
C The Court Reporter.
D The Judge assigned to that level. ✓ correct

17. What role records and files hearing transcripts? Official only #1366

A Court Reporter. ✓ correct
B Bailiff.
C Master Clerk.
D U.S. Marshal.

18. What role has custody of defendants and provides courtroom security? #1367

A Court Reporter.
B Bailiff. ✓ correct
C Clerk.
D Private Attorney.

19. Which role handles warrant service, prisoner transport, and courthouse security at the federal level? #1368

A Bailiff.
B Master Clerk.
C U.S. Marshal. ✓ correct
D District Attorney.

20. Under Section 3.7, when must a judge recuse? #1369

A Whenever either party requests it, with no cause needed.
B Only if the Chief Justice orders it in advance.
C Never; judges may hear any case assigned to them.
D When they have a personal or financial relationship with a party or counsel in the matter. ✓ correct

21. Where do recusal requests go? #1370

A To the Chief Justice's queue. ✓ correct
B To the District Attorney's office.
C To the Master Clerk directly.
D To the arresting agency.

22. If a citizen's attorney is suspended mid-case, what happens to the citizen's case records? #1371

A The case is dismissed automatically.
B The clients are never deprived of their case records; they are notified and offered the three paths. ✓ correct
C The records are sealed permanently.
D The records transfer to the DA's office.

23. What creates a case on the record automatically under Track One? #1372

A A written petition to the Master Clerk's office.
B A draft prepared in the Citizen Legal Portal.
C An arrest by the arresting agency, applying the Penal Code (Section 3.1). ✓ correct
D A notice issued by the Chief Justice.

24. If a citizen does not file to contest their Track One processing, what is the status of their case? #1373

A The case is automatically escalated to arraignment.
B A judge must still set bail after the fact.
C The defendant is sentenced a second time.
D It remains on the record as processed and closed; no contest was ever filed. ✓ correct

25. Under Track Two, what is filed to formally challenge a Track One processing? Official only #1374

A An arraignment notice.
B A contest, which opens a court case under Section 3.2. ✓ correct
C A criminal report.
D An appeal, filed before any hearing occurs.

26. When is bail or a fine addressed under Track One? #1375

A Only after the trial concludes.
B At the point of arrest, immediately, as part of processing - not at a later hearing. ✓ correct
C Only if the defendant requests it.
D Only once a jury is empaneled.

27. Which step directly precedes trial in a contested (Track Two) case? #1376

A Appeal.
B Sentencing.
C Filing to contest, which opens the court case and schedules the hearing. ✓ correct
D The original street-processing report.

28. A defendant wants a jury trial for a felony charge. Is this guaranteed? #1377

A Yes, guaranteed in every felony case with no conditions.
B No, jury trials are never available in CrestWood.
C Only the DA can request a jury trial, not the defendant.
D It is available on request where practicable, not automatically guaranteed as the default format. ✓ correct

29. What happens after a case is opened automatically at the point of arrest under Track One? #1378

A It is preserved on the record whether or not the citizen later files to contest it. ✓ correct
B It is immediately appealed.
C It is sealed by default.
D It skips directly to a federal case.

30. Who executes a sentence after it is entered on the record following a contested trial? #1379

A The Bailiff sets an independent sentence.
B It is executed per the penal code as entered by the presiding judge. ✓ correct
C The DA re-negotiates the sentence post-verdict.
D The Master Clerk revises the sentence for filing.

31. If a citizen who filed a Track Two contest fails to appear for their scheduled hearing, what penal code offense may also apply? #1380

A Perjury.
B Escape from Custody.
C Bail Jumping or Failure to Appear. ✓ correct
D Obstruction or Retaliation.

32. What is the relationship between the DA's office and Public Defenders? #1381

A Public Defenders report directly to the Chief Justice with no DA involvement.
B Public Defenders are independent contractors with no supervision.
C Public Defenders are supervised by the Master Clerk.
D Public Defenders' assignment is supervised by the District Attorney's office. ✓ correct

33. Which track addresses the bail schedule at the point of arrest? Official only #1382

A Track One - street processing (Section 3.1). ✓ correct
B The Report step of a v1.0 sequential path.
C The Appeal step.
D The Charging step of a v1.0 sequential path.

34. What must happen for a court case to be opened under Track Two? #1383

A The judge must first set bail at a hearing.
B The person must first have been processed under Track One, then file to contest. ✓ correct
C The defendant must first request a jury.
D An appeal window must first close.

35. Which officer of the court is responsible for service of process in addition to courtroom security? #1384

A Court Reporter.
B Clerk.
C Bailiff. ✓ correct
D Private Attorney.

36. A verdict is entered but the losing party wants to challenge it. What is the correct mechanism and deadline? #1385

A Request a new trial from the same judge with no deadline.
B File a civil suit against the court.
C Ask the Master Clerk to overturn the verdict.
D File an appeal to the next court level within 7 days of verdict. ✓ correct

37. Does CrestWood's sentencing framework include capital punishment? #1386

A Yes, for capital felonies, per Texas Penal Code classifications. ✓ correct
B No, capital punishment is not used under any classification.
C Only for federal offenses.
D Only if the jury unanimously requests it.

38. Under Track One, who determines the charges filed against an arrestee? #1387

A The Chief Justice.
B They are tallied from the Penal Code at the point of arrest; no DA or judge review is required. ✓ correct
C The Master Clerk.
D The presiding judge, at arraignment.

39. What is the correct two-track description of CrestWood's criminal process under Title III? #1388

A Arraignment, Report, Bail, Charging, Trial, Appeal, Verdict.
B Track One: street processing sets charges, jail time, and fine immediately at arrest with no prosecutor or judge required. Track Two: an optional contest afterward, with bail refund and compensation for time served if dismissed or not guilty. ✓ correct
C Report, Charging, Arraignment, Bail, Trial, Verdict & Sentencing, Appeal.
D Bail, Report, Trial, Charging, Arraignment, Appeal, Verdict.

40. If a defendant's jury trial request for a felony is impracticable to schedule, what is the fallback under Section 3.4? #1389

A The case is automatically dismissed.
B The defendant is sentenced without any trial.
C The case is transferred to civil court.
D The default bench trial format applies. ✓ correct

41. Under Track One, who determines an arrestee's charges, jail time, and fine? Official only #1550

A A judge, at a bail hearing.
B They are tallied from the Penal Code at the point of arrest; no prosecutor or judge is required. ✓ correct
C The Master Clerk, after a documented review.
D The FBI Director, for all cases.

42. Under Section 3.6, what can prompt the District Attorney to open a federal investigation? #1551

A A citizen requesting expungement.
B A flagged pattern across the record - repeat offenders or cases linked by suspects, crime type, or location. ✓ correct
C A judge's recusal.
D A firm's dissolution.

43. When the DA and FBI bring a federal case under Section 3.6, what does it add on top of the street-level penalties already served? #1552

A Nothing; it replaces the street-level penalties.
B It stacks additional charges or fines and is tried in federal court before a judge or the Chief Justice. ✓ correct
C It automatically triggers a pardon review.
D It converts the matter into a civil suit.

44. If a court dismisses a contested case or finds the defendant not guilty, what happens under Section 3.3? #1553

A Nothing changes; the case simply closes.
B The bail is refunded in full and the citizen is compensated for time served. ✓ correct
C The bail is forfeited to the city treasury.
D The citizen must pay a court fee before the refund is issued.

45. If a citizen's Track Two contest fails and their conviction is upheld, what happens under Section 3.3? #1554

A The bail is refunded in full regardless of outcome.
B No refund is issued; the case closes as adjudicated, and a court fee applies. ✓ correct
C The bail is doubled as a penalty.
D The citizen is compensated for time served anyway.

46. Under Section 3.2, is a citizen held while awaiting their Track Two contest hearing? #1555

A Yes, they are held until the hearing concludes.
B No - they were already processed under Track One, so they are not held; the contest is a remedy, not a second punishment. ✓ correct
C Only if they request a jury.
D Only if the DA objects to release.

47. Under Section 3.2, what happens to the speedy-trial clock if the citizen personally chooses to wait for a private attorney? #1556

A It keeps running against the city regardless.
B The delay is the citizen's choice, pauses the clock, and is never held against the city. ✓ correct
C It automatically forfeits their right to contest.
D It transfers the matter to federal court.

48. Petra Lindqvist is booked under Track One with no attorney present. Does she need a lawyer to later file a contest of that processing? #1587

A No - she may self-represent, request a Public Defender, or retain private counsel; the choice is hers. ✓ correct
B Yes - only a licensed attorney may file a Track Two contest.
C Yes - a Public Defender is automatically assigned with no citizen input.
D No - contests may only be filed by the arresting agency.

49. Under Track One, is the arrest report or the resulting citizen record visible to the general public? #1588

A The criminal case registry entry is public unless sealed; the underlying evidence/briefcase material is not. ✓ correct
B Nothing about a Track One case is ever public.
C The entire case file, including privileged material, is public by default.
D Only the DA office may view any part of the record.

50. A self-represented citizen wants to request their own Public Defender mid-case after starting self-represented. Is this allowed? #1589

A No - once self-represented, a citizen is locked into that path.
B Yes - a citizen may still request a Public Defender or retain counsel later in the process. ✓ correct
C Only if the DA approves the switch first.
D Only if a jury has already been empaneled.

Evidence 33 questions · 5 drawn per official sitting

1. An arresting officer's bodycam footage is offered at trial. What is the primary purpose of reviewing it? Official only #1390

A To verify the officer's account of events against a contemporaneous recording. ✓ correct
B To replace the need for any witness testimony entirely.
C To determine bail amounts automatically.
D To set the defendant's sentence in advance.

2. What concept describes the unbroken record of who handled a piece of physical evidence, from seizure to trial? #1391

A Case counsel snapshot.
B Chain of custody. ✓ correct
C Registry numbering.
D Public record status.

3. Why does a broken chain of custody matter for a piece of evidence? #1392

A It has no effect on admissibility.
B It automatically dismisses the entire case.
C It can be challenged as unreliable or excluded because its integrity cannot be verified. ✓ correct
D It only matters for civil, not criminal, cases.

4. A witness statement is taken shortly after an incident. What generally makes it more credible at trial? #1393

A It was written by the defendant's own attorney.
B It was never shown to anyone else.
C It was given anonymously.
D It was recorded close in time to the event and is consistent with other evidence. ✓ correct

5. What is the effect of case_files scoped as 'evidence' versus 'briefcase' under the DOJ system? #1394

A Evidence-scoped files relate to the matter's proof and may be reviewed by the court; briefcase files are privileged attorney work product. ✓ correct
B Both scopes are always public.
C Both scopes are always privileged.
D There is no functional difference between the two scopes.

6. Which of the following is generally admissible evidence in a CrestWood trial? #1395

A Rumors relayed secondhand with no documentation.
B Properly documented bodycam footage with an intact chain of custody. ✓ correct
C Privileged attorney-client briefcase notes without consent.
D Sealed material without a court order.

7. What should counsel do if opposing evidence appears to have a broken chain of custody? #1396

A Ignore it since chain of custody is irrelevant.
B Accept it without question to save time.
C Challenge its admissibility before or during trial. ✓ correct
D Ask the Bailiff to destroy it.

8. Are a judge's or jury's private deliberation notes generally treated as confidential? Official only #1397

A No, they are published immediately after verdict.
B No, they are shared with both counsel in real time.
C Yes, but only if the defendant requests confidentiality.
D Yes, they are confidential and not part of the public record. ✓ correct

9. What role typically first collects and logs physical evidence at a scene? #1398

A The arresting or investigating agency. ✓ correct
B The Master Clerk.
C The Court Reporter.
D The Chief Justice.

10. A defense attorney wants to introduce a witness statement that contradicts the officer's report. What is the correct approach? #1399

A Suppress it because it helps the defense.
B Present it properly through the evidentiary process for the court/jury to weigh against other evidence. ✓ correct
C Submit it directly to the jury room without review.
D Discard it since only prosecution evidence is admissible.

11. What is the significance of a 'case_files' upload timestamp for evidence? #1400

A It has no evidentiary significance.
B It determines the sentence length automatically.
C It helps establish when the evidence was introduced and supports the chain-of-custody record. ✓ correct
D It replaces the need for witness testimony.

12. If evidence was obtained in a manner inconsistent with DOJ procedure, what is the appropriate response from defense counsel? #1401

A Accept it silently to avoid conflict with the DA.
B Report it to the media instead of the court.
C Ignore the defect since only the DA can raise it.
D Move to challenge or exclude the evidence based on the procedural defect. ✓ correct

13. What generally distinguishes admissible evidence from mere allegation in a CrestWood hearing? #1402

A Admissible evidence is documented, attributable, and can be tested by the opposing side. ✓ correct
B Admissible evidence is whatever the DA personally believes.
C Admissible evidence must always be a written confession.
D Admissible evidence must always come from a Judge.

14. Why might a chain-of-custody log include multiple handlers' names and timestamps? #1403

A To identify who to bill for storage fees.
B To show exactly who had control of the evidence at each point, supporting its integrity. ✓ correct
C To determine jury eligibility.
D To calculate the applicable fine.

15. A witness later recants their statement. How should this affect the evidentiary weight given to the original statement? Official only #1404

A The original statement must be automatically stricken with no consideration.
B The recantation is irrelevant and ignored entirely.
C The recantation is relevant and should be weighed alongside the original statement, not ignored. ✓ correct
D The case must be dismissed immediately.

16. What is the purpose of documenting evidence handling in the case_files table's uploader fields? #1405

A To assign case fees to the uploader.
B To determine the courtroom seating chart.
C To set the trial date.
D To create an auditable record of who introduced or handled each item. ✓ correct

17. Bodycam footage shows an ambiguous moment that could support either party. What is the correct handling? #1406

A Present it as-is and let the fact-finder (judge or jury) weigh its meaning. ✓ correct
B Edit it to favor one side before submission.
C Withhold it since it does not clearly help either side.
D Destroy it to avoid confusion.

18. What should counsel verify first when opposing counsel introduces a new piece of physical evidence at trial? #1407

A Whether the judge personally likes the evidence.
B Whether it was properly documented and disclosed, and whether the chain of custody is intact. ✓ correct
C Whether the evidence is expensive to replace.
D Whether the DA filed it in triplicate.

19. Why is it important that evidence-scope case files are distinguished from verdict-scope files? #1408

A There is no reason; the distinction is purely cosmetic.
B Because only verdict files are ever retained.
C Because evidence supports the fact-finding process while verdict records reflect the final adjudicated outcome - they serve different roles in the record. ✓ correct
D Because evidence files are always public and verdict files never are.

20. A defense witness statement conflicts with a bodycam timestamp. What is the appropriate next step for the court? #1409

A Automatically believe the witness over the bodycam.
B Automatically believe the bodycam over the witness.
C Dismiss the case for insufficient evidence without weighing anything.
D Weigh the conflicting evidence and assess credibility rather than automatically discarding either. ✓ correct

21. What is a key reason chain-of-custody documentation should never have unexplained gaps? #1410

A Gaps undermine confidence that the evidence has not been altered, lost, or tampered with. ✓ correct
B Gaps are only a paperwork inconvenience with no legal effect.
C Gaps automatically convert evidence into privileged material.
D Gaps only matter for civil, not criminal, matters.

22. If a piece of evidence was tampered with, which penal code offense could apply to the person responsible? Official only #1411

A Perjury.
B Tampering with Physical Evidence. ✓ correct
C Obstruction or Retaliation.
D Criminal Mischief.

23. A witness gives false testimony under oath. What penal code offense does this potentially constitute? #1412

A Tampering with Physical Evidence.
B Failure to Identify.
C Perjury. ✓ correct
D Bail Jumping or Failure to Appear.

24. What is the best practice when logging a new piece of evidence into a case file? #1413

A Leave it unlabeled so it stays neutral.
B Immediately mark it as permanent regardless of content.
C Route it directly to the Chief Justice, bypassing the case record.
D Record who uploaded it, when, and its scope, so it is traceable through the case's life. ✓ correct

25. Can sealed evidence be reviewed by the general public? #1414

A No - sealed material is removed from public view and only visible to the judiciary, Master Clerk, and administration. ✓ correct
B Yes, sealed evidence is always public once trial concludes.
C Yes, if either party requests it be shown.
D Yes, but only through a formal media request.

26. Why should counsel avoid relying solely on secondhand hearsay when firsthand evidence (bodycam, direct witness statement) is available? #1415

A Hearsay is always automatically inadmissible with no analysis needed.
B Firsthand, documented evidence is more reliable and harder to successfully challenge. ✓ correct
C There is no practical difference in reliability.
D Only the DA is restricted from using hearsay.

27. A judge takes private notes during a bench trial. Are these notes discoverable by either party? #1416

A Yes, either party may request them after verdict.
B Yes, but only the DA may request them.
C No, judicial deliberation notes are confidential. ✓ correct
D Yes, they become part of the public record automatically.

28. What should defense counsel do upon discovering evidence was collected without following proper procedure? #1417

A Say nothing and hope it is not used.
B Destroy the evidence themselves.
C Report it only to the press.
D Raise a timely challenge to its admissibility with the court. ✓ correct

29. Why does the DOJ system separate 'filing' scope files from 'evidence' scope files in a case? #1418

A To distinguish procedural paperwork from material offered to prove or disprove facts, keeping each properly categorized in the record. ✓ correct
B Because filing-scope files are always privileged.
C Because evidence-scope files are never retained.
D There is no functional reason for the distinction.

30. What is the correct handling of physical evidence collected during a search incident to arrest? #1419

A It may be discarded once the arrest report is filed.
B It should be logged with chain-of-custody detail and attached to the case as evidence-scope material. ✓ correct
C It should be treated as privileged briefcase material.
D It should be added directly to the public record with no logging.

31. A self-represented citizen wants to introduce bodycam footage as evidence in their own contest hearing. May they do so without an attorney? #1590

A No - only attorneys may introduce evidence.
B Yes - a self-represented citizen may introduce properly documented evidence the same way counsel would. ✓ correct
C Only if the DA consents to the self-represented citizen introducing it.
D Only if a Public Defender is appointed to introduce it on their behalf.

32. Is a citation registry entry itself treated as evidence in a related court proceeding? #1591

A The citation record can support the case but is restricted to DOJ personnel for lookup, unlike the public case registry entry. ✓ correct
B Citations are always fully public and treated identically to case registry entries.
C Citations may never be referenced in any proceeding.
D Citation records are automatically sealed the moment they are issued.

33. A warrant is referenced during a contested hearing. Can the general public search for and view that warrant on the DOJ registries independent of the hearing? #1592

A Yes, the warrants registry is fully public like the marriage registry.
B No - the warrants registry is restricted to DOJ personnel, not the general public. ✓ correct
C Only if the warrant has been executed.
D Only if the subject of the warrant consents.

Server Rules / RP Conduct 28 questions · 4 drawn per official sitting

1. What is powergaming, and why is it prohibited during a courtroom RP scene? Official only #1420

A Forcing outcomes on other players without allowing them a fair chance to react; it undermines fair roleplay. ✓ correct
B Playing a powerful in-game character class.
C Using in-game money to influence a verdict.
D Filing more cases than average in a week.

2. A player is unhappy with a bench trial's outcome. What is the correct in-character response? #1421

A Immediately break character to argue with the judge OOC.
B Respect the scene's outcome in character and, if needed, pursue an appeal through proper in-character channels. ✓ correct
C Refuse to continue playing the character.
D Post the outcome publicly to pressure the judge.

3. Two players disagree about whether an action was properly roleplayed. What is the correct escalation path? #1422

A Continue arguing in character indefinitely.
B Immediately demand the other player be banned.
C Take the disagreement out of character calmly and, if unresolved, escalate to staff through the proper OOC channel. ✓ correct
D Resolve it by whoever has the higher in-game rank.

4. Why must a player remain in character during an active DOJ scene (hearing, arrest, filing)? #1423

A Because it is required only for staff members.
B Because out-of-character talk is always against server rules everywhere.
C Because in character speech is faster to type.
D To preserve immersion and fairness for all participants in the scene. ✓ correct

5. What does 'continuity of record' mean in the context of a character's case history? #1424

A A character's documented history (charges, verdicts, licenses) persists and is treated as continuous, not reset arbitrarily. ✓ correct
B Each new session wipes the character's prior record.
C Only the most recent case matters; older ones are ignored.
D Continuity applies only to civil cases, never criminal.

6. Under Title VI Section 5, what is a suspendable offense related to DOJ account access? #1425

A Logging in from a different computer.
B Sharing your DOJ account credentials with another player. ✓ correct
C Changing your own passcode after first login.
D Asking a Clerk a question about a filing.

7. When must a DOJ member set their own passcode and security question? #1426

A Only if requested by the Chief Justice.
B Never; the system assigns one permanently.
C At first login. ✓ correct
D Only after a suspension.

8. A player wants to challenge a courtroom decision they disagree with as a player (not in character). What should they do? #1427

A Argue with the judge in character until they change the ruling.
B Post about it in a public in-game chat during the scene.
C Ignore server rules and simply redo the scene themselves.
D Raise it out of character through the proper staff channel rather than disrupting the scene. ✓ correct

9. Why is exam integrity (e.g., not sharing bar exam answers) important per Title VI's account security principle? Official only #1428

A Sharing credentials or answers undermines the fairness of the credentialing system for all players. ✓ correct
B It only matters for the DMV exam, not the bar exam.
C Exam answers are meant to be shared freely among firm members.
D It has no bearing on account security rules.

10. What is the correct behavior if a scene's outcome (e.g., a verdict) negatively affects your character? #1429

A Demand an OOC reversal from the judge immediately.
B Accept it in character as part of the roleplay and use in-character remedies (like an appeal) if desired. ✓ correct
C Stop participating in DOJ roleplay entirely.
D Retaliate against the other player's other characters.

11. A Clerk notices a filer trying to submit obviously false information to gain an unfair advantage. What server-rule concept does this violate? #1430

A It is fully permitted since the Clerk cannot verify facts.
B It only matters if the DA notices too.
C It violates fair-play/no-powergaming norms and Title VI candor principles. ✓ correct
D It is only a rule violation if money changes hands.

12. Why should OOC (out-of-character) disputes never be resolved inside an active IC courtroom scene? #1431

A OOC disputes are always more important than the scene.
B IC scenes automatically pause for any OOC discussion.
C There is no distinction between OOC and IC in a courtroom.
D Mixing OOC conflict into IC scenes breaks immersion and is unfair to other participants staying in character. ✓ correct

13. What should a player do if they believe a staff member misapplied a DOJ rule during a scene? #1432

A Raise it through the appropriate OOC feedback/escalation channel after the scene, not disrupt the scene itself. ✓ correct
B Immediately quit the scene without explanation.
C Argue publicly with the staff member during the scene.
D Take matters into their own hands in character.

14. Why is credential sharing specifically called out as a suspendable offense rather than a minor infraction? #1433

A Because it is the only rule in Title V.
B Because it compromises account security and the integrity of the roles/records tied to that account. ✓ correct
C Because it directly affects in-game currency balances.
D Because it only affects the sharer, not the server.

15. A defendant player wants to use out-of-game knowledge (metagaming) to influence their in-character legal strategy. Is this acceptable? #1434

A Yes, any knowledge the player has is fair game.
B Yes, but only during civil cases.
C No - using out-of-character knowledge to influence in-character decisions is a form of unfair play. ✓ correct
D Yes, if the judge does not notice.

16. What is the appropriate response when a courtroom scene produces a result you find unrealistic but not against the rules? #1435

A Immediately break the scene to complain.
B Refuse to ever engage in DOJ scenes again.
C Demand the scene be redone from the start.
D Accept the outcome and continue the roleplay in character; use in-character remedies if available. ✓ correct

17. Why does maintaining 'continuity of record' matter for fair sentencing and licensing decisions? Official only #1436

A It ensures decisions like bail, sentencing, or license eligibility are based on a character's real accumulated history, not a reset slate. ✓ correct
B It has no impact on any DOJ decision.
C It only matters for marriage registry entries.
D It is purely cosmetic flavor text.

18. A player asks a Clerk to backdate a filing to gain an advantage. What server-rule and Title V principle does this violate? #1437

A It is acceptable since Clerks have full discretion over dates.
B It violates candor requirements (Title VI Section 1) and fair-play norms against manipulating the record. ✓ correct
C It is acceptable if the Master Clerk is unaware.
D It only matters if a Judge later reviews the file.

19. What is the correct way to handle a scene where another player is clearly not following courtroom RP etiquette? #1438

A Immediately retaliate in character with an unrelated action.
B Leave the server permanently.
C Address it calmly, and escalate to staff if it continues, rather than escalating conflict in character. ✓ correct
D Publicly call them out in an unrelated in-game chat.

20. Why should court roleplay avoid 'metagaming' a real verdict before it is officially entered? #1439

A Because verdicts are never entered by judges.
B Because metagaming is only a concern in civil cases.
C Because it speeds up the roleplay, which is discouraged.
D Because acting on information your character would not yet know breaks immersion and fairness. ✓ correct

21. A player claims their character 'always wins' court cases regardless of evidence. What rule concept does this describe? #1440

A Powergaming - forcing favorable outcomes without allowing fair contest. ✓ correct
B Legitimate strategic play.
C A valid interpretation of privilege.
D A form of civil procedure.

22. Why is respecting a scene's outcome important even when a player disagrees with the judge's ruling? #1441

A Because judges are always correct and cannot be appealed.
B It preserves fair, consistent roleplay for everyone and reflects that IC decisions have IC consequences. ✓ correct
C Because disagreement is against the rules generally.
D Because only OOC staff rulings matter.

23. What should a new player do at first DOJ account login regarding security? #1442

A Use the default passcode permanently for simplicity.
B Share the default credentials with their firm.
C Set a personal passcode and security question, and keep them private. ✓ correct
D Skip security setup since it is optional.

24. Why might sharing exam answers with another candidate be treated similarly to sharing account credentials? #1443

A They are unrelated issues with no shared principle.
B Exam answers are not covered by any server rule.
C Only account credentials matter under Title V.
D Both undermine the integrity of the credentialing/account system that Title VI is designed to protect. ✓ correct

25. A player wants to skip roleplay steps in a courtroom scene to reach a verdict faster. Why is this discouraged? #1444

A Skipping steps undermines fair process and immersion for all participants in the scene. ✓ correct
B It is encouraged to keep sessions short.
C It is required whenever the judge is busy.
D It has no effect on other players.

26. A player is annoyed that a self-represented citizen character is filing their own paperwork instead of hiring an attorney character. Is this a rule violation? #1593

A Yes - self-representation is against server rules.
B No - self-representation is a legitimate in-character choice under current DOJ policy; it is not a rule violation. ✓ correct
C Yes, unless the player pays an OOC fee to opt out of hiring an attorney.
D Only Judges may decide whether self-representation is allowed in a given scene.

27. Why is it a rule violation to share your DOJ terminal lockout IT ticket credentials with another player to "fix it faster"? #1594

A It is not a violation; sharing IT ticket access is encouraged.
B It undermines account security the same way sharing DOJ account credentials does, and is treated as a suspendable offense. ✓ correct
C IT tickets have no security implications.
D Only DOJ IT Staff accounts have this restriction.

28. A player claims out-of-character that the licenses/citations/warrants registries "have always been public" to justify looking up another player. What is the correct ruling? #1595

A The claim is accurate; no correction is needed.
B The claim is inaccurate - those three registries are DOJ-personnel-only; using out-of-character knowledge to justify looking them up is a metagaming violation. ✓ correct
C The claim only matters if a Judge is present.
D Public registries include everything except marriage records.

Civil Procedure 28 questions · 3 drawn per official sitting

1. A civil suit seeks $30,000 in damages. Which court has jurisdiction? Official only #1445

A District Court, since the amount exceeds $25,000. ✓ correct
B Municipal Court, since all civil suits start there.
C The Supreme Court of CrestWood, as the court of first instance.
D Either court at the plaintiff's sole discretion, regardless of amount.

2. A civil suit seeks exactly $25,000 in damages. Which court has jurisdiction? #1446

A District Court exclusively.
B Municipal Court, since the suit is at or below $25,000. ✓ correct
C The Supreme Court of CrestWood.
D Neither court; suits of exactly $25,000 cannot be filed.

3. What registry records a marriage filing? #1447

A The property registry.
B The professional registry.
C The marriage registry, with an MC- registry number. ✓ correct
D The case registry.

4. What registry records a property transaction such as a closing? #1448

A The marriage registry.
B The professional registry.
C The case registry.
D The property registry, with a PD- registry number. ✓ correct

5. What registry records professional credentials or licensure filings? #1449

A The professional registry, with a PR- registry number. ✓ correct
B The marriage registry.
C The property registry.
D The case registry.

6. Under the CrestWood real-estate ecosystem, who finalizes a property buy/sell closing? #1450

A The buyer and seller alone, with no clerk involvement.
B A clerk, as a clerk-finalized closing. ✓ correct
C The District Attorney.
D The Bailiff.

7. What is the non-payment escalation ladder for a delinquent property account, in order? #1451

A Liquidation immediately upon one missed payment.
B Eviction, then penalty, then lien, then liquidation.
C Penalty, then a DOJ lien and lockout, then foreclosure or eviction, then liquidation. ✓ correct
D Foreclosure first, with no prior penalty or lien step.

8. What legal tool can an attorney use to pause the non-payment escalation ladder? #1452

A An immediate expungement request.
B A request to seal the property record.
C A demand for a jury trial.
D A stay, paired with a cure period to remedy the default. ✓ correct

9. A tenant disputes a landlord's claim in a civil filing. What court level applies if damages sought are $10,000? Official only #1453

A Municipal Court. ✓ correct
B District Court.
C The Supreme Court of CrestWood.
D Federal court.

10. What kind of registry entry documents a completed marriage? #1454

A A property deed.
B A marriage certificate recorded in the marriage registry. ✓ correct
C A professional license.
D A criminal case file.

11. Why does dissolving a law firm not erase civil case history involving that firm? #1455

A Civil case history is always deleted upon firm dissolution.
B Only criminal case history survives firm dissolution.
C Per Section 1.3, case history remains on the record with the firm's name preserved as filed even after dissolution. ✓ correct
D Case history transfers to a new firm automatically.

12. A property closing is contested as improperly finalized. What is the correct venue? #1456

A Only the Master Clerk can resolve it administratively, with no court involvement.
B It cannot be contested once a clerk finalizes it.
C Only the Chief Justice may hear property disputes.
D The appropriate civil court level based on the amount and nature of the dispute (Municipal or District). ✓ correct

13. What civil registry would a citizen check to verify someone's marriage status on the public record? #1457

A The marriage registry (MC- filings). ✓ correct
B The property registry.
C The professional registry.
D The criminal case registry.

14. What is the purpose of the professional registry (PR- filings)? #1458

A To record criminal case verdicts.
B To record professional credentials/licensure-type filings on the civil side of the system. ✓ correct
C To record marriage certificates.
D To record traffic citations.

15. If a foreclosure is underway and an attorney secures a stay and cure, what happens to the ladder? #1459

A The ladder continues regardless of the stay.
B The property is immediately liquidated despite the stay.
C It is halted while the stay is in effect, pending the cure. ✓ correct
D The stay converts the matter into a criminal case.

16. A civil plaintiff is unsure whether to file in Municipal or District Court. What determines the answer? #1460

A The plaintiff's personal preference alone.
B Whichever court has a shorter docket that week.
C The defendant's criminal history.
D The dollar amount at issue: at or below $25,000 goes to Municipal Court, above goes to District Court. ✓ correct

17. What happens to a citizen's civil case access if their retained firm is suspended? Official only #1461

A The citizen retains access to their own case records and is offered the three paths again. ✓ correct
B The citizen loses all access to their case records.
C The case is automatically dismissed.
D The case is transferred to the Master Clerk permanently.

18. Which registry would show the record of a business's professional licensure filing for public verification? #1462

A The property registry (PD-).
B The professional registry (PR-). ✓ correct
C The marriage registry (MC-).
D The criminal case registry (CW-).

19. What civil mechanism follows an uncured lien on a non-paying property account? #1463

A Immediate criminal prosecution.
B Automatic expungement of the property record.
C Foreclosure or eviction proceedings. ✓ correct
D Immediate marriage annulment.

20. Can a sealed civil filing still be viewed by the Master Clerk? #1464

A No, sealing removes it from everyone including the Master Clerk.
B Only if the Chief Justice personally unseals it first.
C Only after the standard 90-day library period.
D Yes, sealed material remains visible to the judiciary, the Master Clerk, and system administration. ✓ correct

21. A civil suit involves a $25,001 claim. Which court hears it? #1465

A District Court, since it exceeds $25,000. ✓ correct
B Municipal Court, since it is close to the threshold.
C Either court at random assignment.
D Neither; the claim must be reduced to file.

22. What is the final step in the property non-payment ladder if all prior steps and remedies fail? #1466

A Simple penalty only.
B Liquidation. ✓ correct
C Automatic expungement of the debt.
D Transfer to the marriage registry.

23. Under the property registry system, what document permanently reflects an owner's certified title after a closing? #1467

A A temporary draft that expires in 60 days.
B A privileged briefcase note.
C The recorded deed/certificate in the property registry (PD-), which is retained as a permanent registry record. ✓ correct
D A sealed record visible only to the buyer.

24. What is required for a firm to accept a private civil retention request under Section 2.3? #1468

A Civil retention has no time limit at all.
B Civil retention requests may only go to Public Defenders.
C Civil retention requests bypass the three-paths framework entirely.
D The firm must accept within the 3-day window, same as criminal retention requests. ✓ correct

25. If a civil defendant cannot afford private counsel in a suit within Municipal Court's jurisdiction, what path applies under Section 2.3? #1469

A The same three paths apply: self-representation, request appointed counsel, or private retention. ✓ correct
B Civil defendants have no right to any of the three paths.
C Only self-representation is available for civil suits.
D Civil suits automatically default to a Public Defender with no citizen choice.

26. Owen Castellano wants to self-represent in a civil suit within Municipal Court jurisdiction. Is self-representation available in civil matters, same as criminal? #1596

A No - civil defendants must always retain an attorney.
B Yes - the same three paths (self-representation, appointed counsel, or private retention) apply to civil suits as to criminal matters. ✓ correct
C Only plaintiffs may self-represent; defendants may not.
D Self-representation in civil suits requires Chief Justice pre-approval.

27. A civil litigant wants to search the public registries for the opposing party outstanding citations to use at trial. Can they do this on their own from the public registry search? #1597

A Yes - citations are part of the fully public registry search.
B No - the citations registry is restricted to DOJ personnel; it is not part of the public-facing search. ✓ correct
C Yes, but only after the trial has already concluded.
D Only the presiding judge may ever view citation records.

28. A property closing invoice comes due. Through which channels may the buyer pay it? #1598

A Only by mailing a check to the Master Clerk office.
B At a City Services window, through the DOJ phone app, or on the DOJ website at an in-city terminal. ✓ correct
C Only through the Citizen Legal Portal.
D Only in cash at the property itself.

Legal Ethics 21 questions · 2 drawn per official sitting

1. What does the candor rule (Title VI Section 1) prohibit? Official only #1470

A Knowingly filing a false document or misrepresenting facts. ✓ correct
B Filing more than one document per day.
C Representing more than one client at a time.
D Charging a retention fee.

2. What communications are protected by privilege under Title VI Section 2? #1471

A All communications between opposing counsel.
B Attorney-client communications, including briefcase notes and consultation records. ✓ correct
C Public statements made in open court.
D Communications with the Chief Justice.

3. Under what conditions may privileged communications be disclosed? #1472

A Whenever counsel personally judges it necessary.
B Whenever the DA formally requests it.
C With the client's consent or by court order. ✓ correct
D Never, under any circumstance.

4. What must a firm do internally to comply with the conflicts rule (Title VI Section 3)? #1473

A Assign every case to the newest associate.
B Publicly disclose all client names.
C Avoid taking on more than one client per month.
D Screen internally for conflicts of interest among clients. ✓ correct

5. Who has authority to suspend a DOJ account for cause under Title VI Section 4? #1474

A The Chief Justice. ✓ correct
B Any Master Clerk.
C Any Judge at any court level.
D The District Attorney.

6. If an attorney is suspended, what happens to their clients' access to case records? Official only #1475

A Client case records are deleted with the attorney's account.
B Clients are never deprived of their case records and are notified and offered the three paths. ✓ correct
C Clients lose access until a new attorney is hired.
D Clients must refile all cases from scratch.

7. What must every DOJ member set up at first login, per Section 5? #1476

A A public biography.
B A firm affiliation.
C Their own passcode and security question. ✓ correct
D A billing address.

8. What is the consequence for sharing DOJ account credentials? #1477

A It is encouraged for firm efficiency.
B It results only in a warning, never suspension.
C It has no formal consequence.
D It is a suspendable offense. ✓ correct

9. May an attorney represent two adverse parties in the same matter? #1478

A No, this is prohibited under the conflicts rule. ✓ correct
B Yes, as long as both parties consent verbally.
C Yes, if the attorney charges no fee to either party.
D Yes, if the case is civil rather than criminal.

10. What is the ethical obligation when a client requests something an attorney knows to be factually false in a filing? #1479

A File it, since the client directs the case.
B Decline to file it, consistent with the candor rule. ✓ correct
C File it but mark it privately as questionable.
D Ask the DA to file it instead.

11. What entity, besides the Chief Justice, can also suspend accounts and exercise full administrative control? Official only #1480

A The Master Clerk alone.
B Any Judge.
C The System Administrator. ✓ correct
D The Bailiff.

12. Can a Master Clerk unilaterally reverse a Chief Justice's suspension of an attorney's account? #1481

A Yes, at any time without review.
B Yes, but only for civil matters.
C Yes, if requested by the attorney's firm.
D No; full administrative authority for such actions rests with the System Administrator and Chief Justice. ✓ correct

13. Why is privilege considered a cornerstone ethical protection rather than a mere courtesy? #1482

A It enables candid client communication necessary for effective representation, and breaching it undermines the justice system's fairness. ✓ correct
B It exists only to reduce clerk paperwork.
C It is a purely administrative rule with no substantive purpose.
D It applies only to civil, not criminal, matters.

14. An attorney discovers mid-case that their firm already represents the opposing party in an unrelated matter. What should they do first? #1483

A Ignore it since the matters are unrelated.
B Screen for and address the potential conflict internally before proceeding. ✓ correct
C Proceed and disclose only if asked by the court.
D Withdraw from both matters immediately without review.

15. What best describes the relationship between Title VI's candor and privilege rules? #1484

A They are mutually exclusive; an attorney must choose one or the other.
B Privilege overrides candor whenever they conflict.
C Candor requires honesty to the court and prohibits false filings, while privilege protects confidential client communications - both apply simultaneously and do not conflict. ✓ correct
D Candor eliminates the existence of privilege entirely.

16. A Private Attorney tells a self-represented opposing party that they are not permitted to file their own paperwork and must hire counsel. Does this violate the candor rule? #1599

A No - it is a permissible negotiating tactic.
B Yes - it knowingly misstates current DOJ policy, which permits self-representation, and misrepresents facts to another party. ✓ correct
C Only if a Judge is present when it is said.
D No - candor obligations only apply to filings, not verbal statements.

17. An attorney encourages a client to look up an opposing witness outstanding warrants on the public registry search to use against them informally. Is this ethical guidance? #1600

A Yes - warrants are public information available to anyone.
B No - warrants are restricted to DOJ personnel, and advising a client to access restricted registry data is improper. ✓ correct
C Yes, as long as the attorney does not personally perform the lookup.
D Only unethical if the witness finds out.

18. Under the candor rule, may an attorney tell a client that a professional exam registration must go through the DMV when it actually happens at City Services? #1601

A Yes, if it saves time for the client.
B No - knowingly misstating the correct registration process to a client is inconsistent with the duty of candor and competent representation. ✓ correct
C Only if the client does not ask any follow-up questions.
D This distinction has no ethical relevance.

19. A judge realizes they personally know the defendant in an upcoming trial. What must the judge do? #1612

A Proceed as normal since personal familiarity alone is not disqualifying.
B File a formal written recusal request explaining the conflict. ✓ correct
C Ask the defendant privately whether they mind.
D Quietly hand the case log to another judge without any record of why.

20. A clerk realizes they have a financial stake in the outcome of a filing they are about to process, but believes they can still handle it fairly. What is the correct procedure? #1613

A Process the filing and disclose the stake afterward if asked.
B Obtain written consent from the affected party via a DOJ Assistance ticket before continuing, or step aside. ✓ correct
C Ask a coworker informally if it seems fine.
D Proceed only if no one else is on duty to do it.

21. Which of the following best describes the DOJ's conflict-of-interest policy for non-judicial roles (clerks, attorneys, etc.)? #1616

A They must always recuse; written consent is never an option.
B They may ignore conflicts unless a party formally objects.
C They must either recuse or obtain written consent from the affected party via a DOJ Assistance ticket before proceeding. ✓ correct
D Only the Chief Justice may have conflicts of interest.

Government Structure 5 questions · Not in official quota

1. Under Section 1.1, which office holds the power to issue pardons and commutations, including on a death sentence? Official only #1545

A The Chief Justice.
B The District Attorney.
C The Governor. ✓ correct
D The FBI Director.

2. What are the CrestWood government's 'four pillars' under Section 1.1? #1546

A Governor, Chief Justice, District Attorney, and FBI Director. ✓ correct
B Governor, Master Clerk, Bailiff, and Court Reporter.
C Chief Justice, Judge, Clerk, and Bailiff.
D Governor, District Attorney, Public Defender, and Private Attorney.

3. Which office leads federal investigations and prosecutions of organized and serious crime, working jointly with the District Attorney? #1547

A The Master Clerk.
B The Chief Justice.
C The FBI Director. ✓ correct
D The Bailiff.

4. Under Section 1.3, who does the FBI Director report to on federal matters? #1548

A The Chief Justice.
B The Governor. ✓ correct
C The District Attorney.
D The Master Clerk.

5. What is required for a federal case to access sealed matter under Section 3.6? #1549

A No additional authorization is needed.
B A judge's co-signature. ✓ correct
C A Master Clerk memo.
D A public vote.

DMV Written Test — Answer Key

An official sitting draws 20 questions (Road Rules & Penalties 10, Signage 5, Right-of-Way 5); pass mark 80% (16 / 20), 30-minute limit, $250 fee, 1-day retake wait. The penalty/penal-code driving questions live under road_rules (there is no separate penal driving category on the DMV exam). Full bank of 70 below.

Road Rules & Penalties 36 questions · 10 drawn per official sitting

1. What is the penal-code classification and penalty for Driving While Intoxicated? #1485

A Class B Misdemeanor, up to 6 months jail and up to $4,000 fine. ✓ correct
B Class A Misdemeanor, up to 12 months jail and up to $4,000 fine.
C Infraction, up to $250 fine only.
D Felony 3rd Degree, up to 24 months jail.

2. What is the penalty classification for Reckless Driving? #1486

A Class C Misdemeanor, fine only.
B Class B Misdemeanor, up to 3 months jail and up to $1,000 fine. ✓ correct
C Class A Misdemeanor, up to 12 months jail.
D State Jail Felony, up to 24 months jail.

3. What is the penalty for Evading in a Vehicle? #1487

A Class B Misdemeanor, up to 3 months jail.
B Infraction, fine only.
C State Jail Felony, up to 24 months jail and up to $15,000 fine. ✓ correct
D Felony 1st Degree, up to 90 months jail.

4. What is the penalty for Speeding? #1488

A Class B Misdemeanor, up to 6 months jail.
B State Jail Felony.
C Class A Misdemeanor, up to 12 months jail.
D Infraction, no jail, up to $250 fine. ✓ correct

5. What is the penalty for Street Racing? #1489

A Class B Misdemeanor, up to 3 months jail and up to $2,000 fine. ✓ correct
B Infraction, fine only.
C Felony 3rd Degree.
D Class C Misdemeanor, fine only.

6. What is the penalty for Driving While License Invalid? #1490

A Class A Misdemeanor, up to 12 months jail.
B Class C Misdemeanor, no jail, up to $500 fine. ✓ correct
C State Jail Felony.
D Felony 3rd Degree.

7. What is the penalty for Failure to Stop and Render Aid? #1491

A Class B Misdemeanor, up to 6 months jail.
B Infraction, fine only.
C Felony 3rd Degree, up to 24 months jail and up to $15,000 fine. ✓ correct
D Class A Misdemeanor, up to 12 months jail.

8. Which is generally the lowest posted speed band, appropriate for dense residential streets? #1492

A Freeway speed limits.
B Town/arterial road speed limits.
C Highway on-ramp speed limits.
D Residential zone speed limits, typically the lowest posted band in the city. ✓ correct

9. Which road type generally carries the highest posted speed limit? #1493

A Freeways. ✓ correct
B Residential streets.
C School zones.
D Parking lots.

10. When approaching an emergency vehicle with active lights and siren from behind, what should a driver do? #1494

A Speed up to clear the intersection first.
B Yield the right-of-way and pull to the right, stopping if necessary until it passes. ✓ correct
C Ignore it if already at a green light.
D Follow closely behind it to move faster through traffic.

11. What should a driver do when an emergency vehicle is stopped on the shoulder with lights active? #1495

A Maintain current speed and lane position.
B Stop directly behind it on the roadway.
C Slow down and move over a lane if safely possible, giving the vehicle room. ✓ correct
D Flash headlights and pass as closely as possible.

12. What is the general rule for following distance in normal traffic conditions? #1496

A Follow as closely as possible to prevent others from merging.
B Following distance only matters on freeways.
C Following distance is irrelevant if using headlights.
D Maintain a safe following distance that allows time to stop if the vehicle ahead brakes suddenly. ✓ correct

13. What must a driver do at a steady red traffic light before any turn, absent a sign stating otherwise? #1497

A Come to a complete stop before proceeding, subject to right-of-way and any posted turn restrictions. ✓ correct
B Slow down only, without a full stop.
C Proceed immediately if no cross traffic is visible.
D Red lights only apply after 10 PM.

14. What does a flashing yellow traffic light indicate? #1498

A Full stop required, same as a red light.
B Proceed with caution; slow down and be prepared to stop. ✓ correct
C No meaning; treat as a normal green light.
D Reverse direction is permitted.

15. What does a flashing red traffic light indicate? #1499

A Proceed without stopping if the road looks clear.
B It indicates the light is malfunctioning and should be ignored.
C Treat it as a stop sign - come to a complete stop, then proceed when clear. ✓ correct
D It means yield only, no full stop required.

16. In a school zone during posted hours, what applies to the speed limit? #1500

A The freeway speed limit applies instead.
B School zone limits only apply on weekends.
C Speed limits are suspended entirely in school zones.
D A reduced speed limit applies and must be obeyed regardless of the normal posted limit. ✓ correct

17. What is the correct action when merging onto a freeway from an on-ramp? #1501

A Match the speed of freeway traffic and merge safely into a gap, yielding to vehicles already on the freeway. ✓ correct
B Stop at the end of the ramp and wait for an opening.
C Merge at a much slower speed than freeway traffic regardless of gaps.
D Freeway traffic must always yield to merging vehicles.

18. What should a driver do if their vehicle breaks down on a live traffic lane? #1502

A Leave it in the lane and wait inside with hazards off.
B Move it to the shoulder or a safe location if possible, activate hazard lights, and exit safely. ✓ correct
C Immediately begin repairs in the active lane.
D Abandon the vehicle without any hazard warning.

19. What is required of a driver involved in a collision causing injury, before leaving the scene? #1503

A Leaving immediately is permitted if no police are present.
B Only exchanging insurance information by mail is required.
C Stop and render aid or ensure aid is rendered, consistent with Failure to Stop and Render Aid liability. ✓ correct
D Nothing is required if the other driver appears unharmed.

20. What is the general rule for turning right at a red light, absent a posted 'No Turn on Red' sign? #1504

A Turns on red are never permitted anywhere in the city.
B No stop is required if turning right.
C Right turns on red are only allowed after 9 PM.
D Come to a complete stop, yield to cross traffic and pedestrians, then turn if clear. ✓ correct

21. What does 'yielding' the right-of-way generally require of a driver? #1505

A Allowing another vehicle or pedestrian with priority to proceed first, even if it means waiting. ✓ correct
B Proceeding first regardless of who has priority.
C Only applies to pedestrians, never other vehicles.
D Only applies at four-way stops.

22. What is the correct response to a posted 'Reduced Speed Ahead' warning sign? #1506

A Ignore it until the new limit sign is physically reached.
B Begin slowing to comply with the upcoming lower posted limit before reaching it. ✓ correct
C Speed up to pass the zone quickly.
D It only applies to commercial vehicles.

23. On a two-lane road with a single lane each direction, when is passing generally unsafe? #1507

A Passing is always safe regardless of oncoming traffic.
B Passing is only restricted on freeways.
C When there is oncoming traffic close enough that passing would not allow a safe return to the lane. ✓ correct
D Passing is unsafe only at night.

24. What is required before changing lanes? #1508

A No signal is required if traffic is light.
B Only signaling is required; checking the lane is optional.
C Lane changes require stopping first.
D Signal the intent to change lanes and confirm the adjacent lane is clear. ✓ correct

25. What is the purpose of a posted following-distance or 'keep back' sign behind certain vehicles (e.g., emergency vehicles)? #1509

A To require extra following distance for safety around that vehicle type. ✓ correct
B To indicate the vehicle ahead is disabled.
C To indicate a reduced speed limit for all vehicles.
D To indicate no passing is allowed anywhere on the road.

26. What does Driving While License Invalid specifically penalize? #1510

A Driving without ever having applied for a license.
B Operating a vehicle while the driver's license is suspended, revoked, or otherwise not valid. ✓ correct
C Driving above the posted speed limit.
D Driving without a Basic Identification Card.

27. If a driver's Weapons License application is voided by a new DWI arrest during the waiting period, what CrestWood rule explains this? #1511

A Traffic offenses never affect license applications.
B Only felony arrests can void a weapons application.
C Title V Section 5.4 - new charges or arrests during the waiting period void the clearance and application. ✓ correct
D The waiting period pauses instead of voiding, resuming after the arrest resolves.

28. What should a driver do when approaching a stopped school bus with flashing red lights and an extended stop sign, absent a physical median barrier? #1512

A Proceed carefully at reduced speed without stopping.
B Only vehicles behind the bus must stop; oncoming traffic may proceed.
C Stopping is only required if children are visibly present.
D Stop and remain stopped until the bus resumes motion or signals clear, per standard right-of-way expectations for school buses. ✓ correct

29. What is the safest response to hydroplaning (loss of traction) on a wet road? #1513

A Ease off the accelerator and steer gently in the direction you want to go, avoiding hard braking or sharp turns. ✓ correct
B Brake hard immediately to stop as fast as possible.
C Accelerate to regain traction.
D Turn the wheel sharply to correct direction.

30. What is the correct action when approaching a traffic circle (roundabout) entrance? #1514

A Enter immediately regardless of circulating traffic.
B Yield to circulating traffic already in the roundabout before entering. ✓ correct
C Stop fully at every roundabout entrance, even with no traffic present.
D Roundabouts have no right-of-way rules.

31. What is the penalty tier for Speeding at 25-40 MPH over the posted limit? #1602

A Infraction, up to $250 fine only.
B Class C Misdemeanor, no jail, up to $750 fine. ✓ correct
C Class B Misdemeanor, up to 3 months jail and up to $1,500 fine.
D Class A Misdemeanor, up to 12 months jail.

32. What is the penalty tier for Speeding at more than 40 MPH over the posted limit? #1603

A Class B Misdemeanor, up to 3 months jail and up to $1,500 fine. ✓ correct
B Infraction only, up to $250 fine.
C Class C Misdemeanor, up to $750 fine.
D Felony 3rd Degree, up to 24 months jail.

33. How does a second Driving While Intoxicated conviction differ in penalty from a first offense? #1604

A It carries the same Class B Misdemeanor penalty as a first offense.
B It escalates to a Class A Misdemeanor, up to 12 months jail and up to $6,000 fine. ✓ correct
C It is automatically reduced to an infraction.
D It becomes a capital offense.

34. What penalty tier applies to a third or subsequent Driving While Intoxicated conviction? #1605

A Class A Misdemeanor, same as a second offense.
B Infraction only.
C Felony 3rd Degree, up to 24 months jail and up to $20,000 fine. ✓ correct
D Class B Misdemeanor, unchanged from a first offense.

35. How is Driving While Intoxicated with a Child Passenger penalized compared to a standard first-offense DWI? #1606

A It carries the same penalty as a standard first-offense DWI.
B It is escalated to a State Jail Felony, up to 18 months jail and up to $15,000 fine. ✓ correct
C It is reduced to an infraction due to the child duty of care exception.
D It is only a civil matter, not criminal.

36. How does Failure to Stop and Render Aid escalate when the collision involves serious bodily injury or death rather than a minor injury? #1607

A It stays a Class A Misdemeanor regardless of injury severity.
B It escalates to a Felony 2nd Degree, up to 48 months jail and up to $40,000 fine. ✓ correct
C It is reduced to an infraction if death occurs.
D There is no escalation; all Failure to Stop cases carry the same penalty.

Signage 17 questions · 5 drawn per official sitting

1. What does an octagonal red sign mean? #1515

A Stop - come to a complete stop. ✓ correct
B Yield to oncoming traffic.
C Reduce speed; no stop required.
D One-way traffic ahead.

2. What does a downward-pointing triangular sign with a red border typically mean? #1516

A Stop, same as an octagon sign.
B Yield - slow down and give way to other traffic or pedestrians. ✓ correct
C No entry in either direction.
D Railroad crossing ahead.

3. What does a circular sign with a diagonal red line through a symbol generally indicate? #1517

A A mandatory action must be performed.
B A speed limit increase ahead.
C A prohibition - the depicted action is not allowed. ✓ correct
D A rest stop is nearby.

4. What shape and color is a standard speed limit sign? #1518

A A red octagon.
B A yellow diamond.
C A blue circle.
D A white rectangular sign with black text/numbers. ✓ correct

5. What does a yellow diamond-shaped sign generally indicate? #1519

A A warning about upcoming road conditions or hazards. ✓ correct
B A regulatory speed limit.
C A mandatory stop.
D A designated parking area.

6. What does a sign showing a curved arrow on a yellow diamond typically warn of? #1520

A An upcoming four-way stop.
B An upcoming curve in the road. ✓ correct
C A speed limit increase.
D A railroad crossing.

7. What does a circular yellow sign with an X and two 'R's typically indicate? #1521

A A rest area ahead.
B A roundabout ahead.
C A railroad crossing ahead. ✓ correct
D A reduced speed zone.

8. What does a blue rectangular sign with an 'H' and directional arrow typically indicate? #1522

A A highway on-ramp.
B A no-parking zone.
C A school zone.
D Directions to a hospital. ✓ correct

9. What does a green rectangular sign typically indicate? #1523

A Guide information such as directions, distances, or place names. ✓ correct
B A regulatory prohibition.
C A temporary construction warning.
D A stop requirement.

10. What does an orange diamond-shaped sign typically indicate? #1524

A A permanent speed limit.
B Temporary conditions, such as road construction or work zones. ✓ correct
C A hospital direction.
D A parking regulation.

11. What does a sign reading 'No Turn on Red' at an intersection require? #1525

A Turns on red are always permitted despite the sign.
B The sign only applies to left turns everywhere.
C Drivers must not turn right (or left, as posted) on a red light at that intersection, even if the way appears clear. ✓ correct
D The sign applies only during school hours.

12. What does a white rectangular sign with a black arrow curving back on itself (a 'no U-turn' symbol with a slash) indicate? #1526

A U-turns are required at that location.
B Left turns are prohibited, but U-turns are allowed.
C The sign only restricts commercial vehicles.
D U-turns are prohibited at that location. ✓ correct

13. What does a sign depicting a pedestrian symbol within a triangle warn of? #1527

A A pedestrian crossing area ahead. ✓ correct
B A bicycle-only lane ahead.
C A no-pedestrian zone.
D A school bus stop ahead.

14. What does a rectangular white sign reading 'ONE WAY' with an arrow indicate? #1528

A The street is closed to all traffic.
B Traffic on that street moves only in the direction of the arrow. ✓ correct
C The street allows two-way traffic only during rush hour.
D The sign is purely informational with no traffic restriction.

15. What does a sign with the words 'DO NOT ENTER' on a red-and-white background mean? #1529

A Entry is allowed only for emergency vehicles.
B Entry is allowed only for pedestrians.
C Entry into that roadway or lane from this direction is prohibited. ✓ correct
D Entry is permitted with caution.

16. What does a sign showing a merging-lanes symbol on a yellow diamond typically warn of? #1610

A An upcoming lane merge where traffic will need to combine. ✓ correct
B A mandatory full stop ahead.
C A speed limit increase ahead.
D A pedestrian crossing ahead.

17. What does a sign reading "Right Lane Must Turn Right" indicate? #1611

A Vehicles in the right lane may go straight or turn right, driver choice.
B Vehicles in the right lane are required to turn right at the intersection ahead; they may not continue straight. ✓ correct
C The sign only applies to buses.
D The right lane is closed ahead.

Right-of-Way 17 questions · 5 drawn per official sitting

1. At a four-way stop where all vehicles arrive at approximately the same time, who has the right-of-way? #1530

A The vehicle to the right of each driver generally proceeds first, with courtesy resolving ties. ✓ correct
B The largest vehicle always proceeds first.
C The first vehicle to honk proceeds first.
D Right-of-way is determined by speed of arrival only, ignoring position.

2. At a four-way stop, if two vehicles arrive at different times, who proceeds first? #1531

A The vehicle turning left always goes first regardless of arrival.
B The vehicle that arrived and stopped first generally proceeds first. ✓ correct
C The vehicle on the left always goes first.
D Right-of-way is decided randomly.

3. At an uncontrolled intersection (no signs or signals), who generally has the right-of-way? #1532

A The faster-moving vehicle.
B The vehicle already honking.
C The vehicle to the right, when two vehicles arrive at about the same time. ✓ correct
D Neither; both must reverse and wait for signage.

4. When a vehicle is turning left across oncoming traffic at an intersection, who must yield? #1533

A Oncoming traffic must always stop for the turning vehicle.
B Right-of-way depends solely on vehicle size.
C Pedestrians must yield to the turning vehicle.
D The turning vehicle must yield to oncoming through traffic and pedestrians. ✓ correct

5. At a marked crosswalk with a pedestrian actively crossing, who has the right-of-way? #1534

A The pedestrian. ✓ correct
B The vehicle, if it arrived at the crosswalk first.
C Whichever party is moving faster.
D The vehicle, if turning rather than going straight.

6. When entering a roadway from a private driveway or parking lot, who must yield? #1535

A Roadway traffic must yield to the entering vehicle.
B The vehicle entering from the driveway or lot must yield to traffic already on the roadway. ✓ correct
C Right-of-way is determined by vehicle size.
D No yielding is required if visibility is clear.

7. At an intersection where one road has a stop sign and the cross road does not, who has the right-of-way? #1536

A Both vehicles must stop regardless of signage.
B The stopped vehicle always proceeds first.
C The vehicle on the road without the stop sign has the right-of-way. ✓ correct
D Right-of-way depends on which vehicle is larger.

8. When two emergency vehicles with active lights and sirens approach the same intersection from different directions, what should other drivers do? #1537

A Proceed normally since emergency vehicles will avoid each other.
B Follow one of the emergency vehicles closely through the intersection.
C Only yield to the first one that arrives.
D Yield to both, pulling over and stopping if needed until it is safe to proceed. ✓ correct

9. A cyclist is riding in a designated bike lane alongside traffic. What is a driver's obligation when turning across the bike lane? #1538

A Yield to the cyclist in the bike lane before completing the turn. ✓ correct
B The cyclist must always stop for turning vehicles.
C Bike lanes have no right-of-way rules.
D Drivers may turn through the bike lane without checking for cyclists.

10. At a roundabout, who generally has the right-of-way? #1539

A Vehicles entering the roundabout always have priority.
B Vehicles already circulating within the roundabout have the right-of-way over vehicles entering. ✓ correct
C Right-of-way is determined by vehicle size in a roundabout.
D The right-of-way alternates every few seconds regardless of position.

11. When a traffic signal is completely non-functional (power outage) at an intersection, how should drivers treat it? #1540

A Proceed at normal speed since no signal means no rules apply.
B Only the busier road must stop.
C Treat the intersection as an all-way stop and proceed using normal right-of-way rules. ✓ correct
D Wait for a police officer before proceeding, with no other option.

12. A pedestrian begins crossing outside of a marked crosswalk. Does this eliminate the driver's duty of care? #1541

A Yes, drivers owe no duty outside marked crosswalks.
B Yes, but only during daylight hours.
C No duty exists unless the pedestrian is a child.
D No - drivers must still exercise due care to avoid a collision with any pedestrian. ✓ correct

13. When merging into freeway traffic, who generally must yield? #1542

A The merging vehicle must yield to traffic already established in the lane. ✓ correct
B Established freeway traffic must always yield to merging vehicles.
C Right-of-way is determined by which vehicle signals first, regardless of position.
D Neither vehicle needs to yield if visibility is good.

14. At a T-intersection, who generally has the right-of-way - the through road or the terminating road? #1543

A The terminating road always has priority.
B Traffic on the through (continuing) road generally has the right-of-way over traffic on the terminating road. ✓ correct
C Right-of-way is decided by vehicle speed only.
D Both roads have equal priority with no yielding required.

15. A school bus is stopped ahead with its stop sign extended and lights flashing. Does the right-of-way rule change based on whether you are behind or oncoming (no median)? #1544

A Only vehicles behind the bus must stop.
B Only oncoming vehicles must stop.
C No - absent a physical median, both directions generally must stop for the bus's extended stop signal. ✓ correct
D Right-of-way rules for school buses do not apply to oncoming traffic under any circumstance.

16. Two vehicles both attempt a left turn from opposite directions at the same intersection at the same time. What is the general rule? #1608

A Whichever vehicle is bigger proceeds first.
B Each yields to oncoming through traffic and, absent conflict with through traffic, the vehicles may proceed without cutting across the other unsafely. ✓ correct
C The vehicle honking first always proceeds.
D Left turns from opposite directions are never permitted simultaneously under any circumstance.

17. A driver approaches a stop sign obscured by construction. Does reduced sign visibility remove the duty to stop? #1609

A Yes, if the sign cannot be clearly seen the driver may proceed without stopping.
B No - drivers must still exercise due care and generally treat known/expected controlled intersections with caution regardless of temporary visibility issues. ✓ correct
C Only removes the duty during daylight hours.
D Only removes the duty for commercial vehicles.

Professional Exams — No question banks exist

Seven professional examinations are defined in the catalog metadata (js/examcatalog.js) and whitelisted in the exam engine (api/exams.php → exams_known_kinds()), and are meant to be registered in-city at the City Services window. But none has an exam_config row and not one has a single question in exam_questions. In the live “All Examinations & Study Guides” catalog they render “Practice questions coming soon” and cannot be sat.

Exam key	Advertised label	Catalog description	Config row
prof_business_owner	Business Owner Certification	Required before receiving any business's owner's certificate (food service, entertainment, mechanic shop, and so on).	None
prof_contractor	Contractor License Examination	Building permits, renovation work, and construction standards.	None
prof_event_planner	Event Planner License Examination	Organizing licensed public and private events in the city.	None
prof_insurance	Insurance Broker License Examination	Writing and servicing insurance policies for citizens and businesses.	None
prof_it_professional	IT Professional Certification	Servicing DOJ terminals and city IT systems (IT work tickets).	None
prof_paralegal	Paralegal Certification	Supporting attorneys and firms with filings, research, and case preparation.	None
prof_realtor	Realtor License Examination	Listing, showing, and closing property sales and rentals.	None

Full evidence and a build checklist are in Missing & Incomplete.

Missing & Incomplete Examinations

7 exams advertised, 0 built The professional-exam system is wired end-to-end in the UI and API surface, but the content layer was never created. A citizen who tries to register or practice one hits “No examination questions are available yet” (or the exam is not configured at all).

File evidence

js/examcatalog.js: Lines 21–49 define EXAM_CATALOG_META labels + descriptions for all 7 professional exams (business_owner, contractor, event_planner, insurance, it_professional, paralegal, realtor). None sets a practice bank.
api/exams.php: Lines 15–18 exams_known_kinds() whitelists all 7 prof_* kinds for register/practice — the only place the strings appear in SQL/PHP/JS besides the catalog.
api/publicinfo.php: The examCatalog handler (lines ~273–291) builds the public list from exam_config LEFT JOIN exam_questions. Because no exam_config row exists for the prof exams, they never appear in the public catalog at all — only Bar and DMV show. has_practice would be false regardless.
sql/v2_migration_04.sql: Lines 27–30 seed exam_config with only bar and dmv (pass/time/quota/fee/retake). No professional rows anywhere.
sql/*.sql: Zero prof_* rows in any exam_questions INSERT (verified across the whole sql/ folder and confirmed against the live database: 452 rows, all bar or dmv).
exam_refresh_2026-07-15.sql: The header (line 17) claims “Professional exam system (7 new exams, City Services registration, DMV separate)”, but the file itself inserts only Bar and DMV questions — no professional config or questions were ever added.

The 7 professional exams to build

Exam key	Label	Config row	Status
prof_business_owner	Business Owner Certification	missing	not buildable yet
prof_contractor	Contractor License Examination	missing	not buildable yet
prof_event_planner	Event Planner License Examination	missing	not buildable yet
prof_insurance	Insurance Broker License Examination	missing	not buildable yet
prof_it_professional	IT Professional Certification	missing	not buildable yet
prof_paralegal	Paralegal Certification	missing	not buildable yet
prof_realtor	Realtor License Examination	missing	not buildable yet

Note: adding questions alone is not enough — without an exam_config row, exams_config() returns null and a sitting cannot be built (“Examination is not configured”). Each new exam needs both a config row (pass %, time, quotas, fee, retake) and a question bank whose categories match the quota keys.

Incompleteness inside the built exams

Orphaned Bar “government” category — 5 questions exist, but the Bar quotas_json (scenario,penal,procedures,criminal_procedure,evidence,server_rules,civil_procedure,ethics) has no government key. Those 5 questions can only surface in unfiltered practice and never on an official Bar sitting. Fix: add a government quota (and rebalance to 50) or fold the content into another category.
Data bug Malformed question (id 1571, Bar / scenario) — its options_json contains unescaped double quotes (…"Check My Documents & Invoices"…), so JSON_VALID is 0 and json_decode() returns null. In the live engine (exams_load_questions_public) that question renders with zero selectable options. Fix: escape the inner quotes in the source row. The answer key above shows the reconstructed options from the source SQL.
Minor Result-email label — exams_finish_sitting() only names bar and dmv in the applicant email; any future prof exam would fall through to a generic label. Low priority until prof exams exist.

Review copy · answer key generated from the live crestwood_doj.exam_questions table · not the live portal.